Adult Health II Comprehensive Practice Exam (WGU D446) … 2026 Update • Verified Answers
✓ VERIFIED • 2026 UPDATE • 100% ACCURATE
Adult Health II Comprehensive Practice Exam (WGU
D446) 2026 UPDATE
Actual Exam Questions & Verified Answers
with Detailed Rationales
Document Type: Exam (Elaborations)
Academic Year:
Total Questions: 50 Multiple Choice
Includes: Correct Answers + Full Rationales
Status: Verified & Updated for 2026
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 1
,Adult Health II Comprehensive Practice Exam (WGU D446) … 2026 Update • Verified Answers
Questions & Verified Answers
1. A patient with heart failure is prescribed Digoxin. Which clinical finding should the nurse
prioritize reporting to the provider before administration?
A. Blood pressure of 138/86 mmHg
B. A heart rate of 78 beats per minute
C. A serum digoxin level of 1.1 ng/mL
D. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
Answer: D
Rationale: Hypokalemia (potassium < 3.5 mEq/L) significantly increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, even if the
digoxin level is within the therapeutic range. Exam questions often test the ability to distinguish this concept
from closely related distractors, making a clear rationale essential for mastery. Applying this knowledge in
clinical settings supports safe, evidence-based practice and improves patient outcomes.
2. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of a patient experiencing Left-sided Heart
Failure?
A. Jugular venous distention (JVD)
B. Crackles in the lung bases
C. Peripheral edema in the lower extremities
D. B. Crackles in the lung bases
Answer: B
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes pulmonary congestion, leading to symptoms like dyspnea and
crackles. Options A, B, and D are signs of Right-sided heart failure. Applying this knowledge in clinical settings
supports safe, evidence-based practice and improves patient outcomes.
3. A patient presents with sudden shortness of breath, chest pain on inspiration, and a heart
rate of 110 bpm. The nurse suspects a Pulmonary Embolism (PE). Which diagnostic test is the
gold standard for confirmation?
A. Chest X-ray
B. Computed Tomography Pulmonary Angiography (CTPA)
C. D-dimer assay
D. Arterial Blood Gas (ABG)
Answer: B
Rationale: CTPA is the most commonly used definitive diagnostic tool for visualizing a pulmonary embolism.
D-dimer is sensitive but not specific. Exam questions often test the ability to distinguish this concept from
closely related distractors, making a clear rationale essential for mastery. Applying this knowledge in clinical
settings supports safe, evidence-based practice and improves patient outcomes.
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 2
, Adult Health II Comprehensive Practice Exam (WGU D446) … 2026 Update • Verified Answers
4. A patient in the ICU is on a ventilator. The high-pressure alarm sounds. Which action should
the nurse take first?
A. Disconnect the patient and manually ventilate
B. Increase the oxygen concentration (FiO2)
C. Check for kinks in the tubing or patient biting the tube
D. Call the respiratory therapist immediately
Answer: C
Rationale: High-pressure alarms are often caused by obstructions such as kinks, secretions, or the patient
biting the ETT. Checking for these is the priority intervention. Recognizing this principle allows the nurse to
prioritize care, anticipate complications, and provide accurate patient education.
5. A patient with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) has an ABG result of pH 7.31,
PaCO2 55, and HCO3 28. How should the nurse interpret this?
A. Partially Compensated Respiratory Acidosis
B. Compensated Metabolic Acidosis
C. Uncompensated Respiratory Alkalosis
D. has an ABG result of pH 7.31, PaCO2 55, and HCO3 28. How should the nurse interpret this?
Answer: A
Rationale: The pH is low (acidosis), PaCO2 is high (respiratory), and the HCO3 is high (attempting to
compensate), but the pH has not returned to normal, making it partially compensated. Applying this knowledge
in clinical settings supports safe, evidence-based practice and improves patient outcomes.
6. During the emergent phase of a major burn injury, which electrolyte imbalance is the nurse
most likely to observe?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypernatremia
Answer: A
Rationale: Cellular destruction during a burn releases potassium into the extracellular space, leading to
hyperkalemia. Recognizing this principle allows the nurse to prioritize care, anticipate complications, and
provide accurate patient education. Exam questions often test the ability to distinguish this concept from closely
related distractors, making a clear rationale essential for mastery.
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 3
✓ VERIFIED • 2026 UPDATE • 100% ACCURATE
Adult Health II Comprehensive Practice Exam (WGU
D446) 2026 UPDATE
Actual Exam Questions & Verified Answers
with Detailed Rationales
Document Type: Exam (Elaborations)
Academic Year:
Total Questions: 50 Multiple Choice
Includes: Correct Answers + Full Rationales
Status: Verified & Updated for 2026
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 1
,Adult Health II Comprehensive Practice Exam (WGU D446) … 2026 Update • Verified Answers
Questions & Verified Answers
1. A patient with heart failure is prescribed Digoxin. Which clinical finding should the nurse
prioritize reporting to the provider before administration?
A. Blood pressure of 138/86 mmHg
B. A heart rate of 78 beats per minute
C. A serum digoxin level of 1.1 ng/mL
D. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
Answer: D
Rationale: Hypokalemia (potassium < 3.5 mEq/L) significantly increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, even if the
digoxin level is within the therapeutic range. Exam questions often test the ability to distinguish this concept
from closely related distractors, making a clear rationale essential for mastery. Applying this knowledge in
clinical settings supports safe, evidence-based practice and improves patient outcomes.
2. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of a patient experiencing Left-sided Heart
Failure?
A. Jugular venous distention (JVD)
B. Crackles in the lung bases
C. Peripheral edema in the lower extremities
D. B. Crackles in the lung bases
Answer: B
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes pulmonary congestion, leading to symptoms like dyspnea and
crackles. Options A, B, and D are signs of Right-sided heart failure. Applying this knowledge in clinical settings
supports safe, evidence-based practice and improves patient outcomes.
3. A patient presents with sudden shortness of breath, chest pain on inspiration, and a heart
rate of 110 bpm. The nurse suspects a Pulmonary Embolism (PE). Which diagnostic test is the
gold standard for confirmation?
A. Chest X-ray
B. Computed Tomography Pulmonary Angiography (CTPA)
C. D-dimer assay
D. Arterial Blood Gas (ABG)
Answer: B
Rationale: CTPA is the most commonly used definitive diagnostic tool for visualizing a pulmonary embolism.
D-dimer is sensitive but not specific. Exam questions often test the ability to distinguish this concept from
closely related distractors, making a clear rationale essential for mastery. Applying this knowledge in clinical
settings supports safe, evidence-based practice and improves patient outcomes.
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 2
, Adult Health II Comprehensive Practice Exam (WGU D446) … 2026 Update • Verified Answers
4. A patient in the ICU is on a ventilator. The high-pressure alarm sounds. Which action should
the nurse take first?
A. Disconnect the patient and manually ventilate
B. Increase the oxygen concentration (FiO2)
C. Check for kinks in the tubing or patient biting the tube
D. Call the respiratory therapist immediately
Answer: C
Rationale: High-pressure alarms are often caused by obstructions such as kinks, secretions, or the patient
biting the ETT. Checking for these is the priority intervention. Recognizing this principle allows the nurse to
prioritize care, anticipate complications, and provide accurate patient education.
5. A patient with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) has an ABG result of pH 7.31,
PaCO2 55, and HCO3 28. How should the nurse interpret this?
A. Partially Compensated Respiratory Acidosis
B. Compensated Metabolic Acidosis
C. Uncompensated Respiratory Alkalosis
D. has an ABG result of pH 7.31, PaCO2 55, and HCO3 28. How should the nurse interpret this?
Answer: A
Rationale: The pH is low (acidosis), PaCO2 is high (respiratory), and the HCO3 is high (attempting to
compensate), but the pH has not returned to normal, making it partially compensated. Applying this knowledge
in clinical settings supports safe, evidence-based practice and improves patient outcomes.
6. During the emergent phase of a major burn injury, which electrolyte imbalance is the nurse
most likely to observe?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypernatremia
Answer: A
Rationale: Cellular destruction during a burn releases potassium into the extracellular space, leading to
hyperkalemia. Recognizing this principle allows the nurse to prioritize care, anticipate complications, and
provide accurate patient education. Exam questions often test the ability to distinguish this concept from closely
related distractors, making a clear rationale essential for mastery.
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 3
