NURS 480 Final Exam Comprehensive Review 2026 UPDATE 2026 Update • Verified Answers
✓ VERIFIED • 2026 UPDATE • 100% ACCURATE
NURS 480 Final Exam Comprehensive Review 2026
UPDATE
Actual Exam Questions & Verified Answers
with Detailed Rationales
Document Type: Exam (Elaborations)
Academic Year:
Total Questions: 50 Multiple Choice
Includes: Correct Answers + Full Rationales
Status: Verified & Updated for 2026
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 1
,NURS 480 Final Exam Comprehensive Review 2026 UPDATE 2026 Update • Verified Answers
Questions & Verified Answers
1. A patient in septic shock remains hypotensive after initial fluid resuscitation. Which class of
medication should the nurse anticipate administering next?
A. Vasopressors
B. Loop diuretics
C. Beta-blockers
D. Calcium channel blockers
Answer: A
Rationale: Vasopressors, such as norepinephrine, are indicated when fluid resuscitation fails to achieve
adequate mean arterial pressure in septic shock. This is an important clinical concept because selecting the
correct answer (A) requires understanding both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing implications.
Recognizing this principle allows the nurse to prioritize care, anticipate complications, and provide accurate
patient education.
2. When assessing a patient using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), the nurse notes the patient
opens eyes to sound, uses inappropriate words, and withdraws from pain. What is the score?
A. 9
B. 11
C. 10
D. 12
Answer: C
Rationale: Eyes to sound (3), Inappropriate words (3), Withdraws from pain (4). 3+3+4=10. Exam questions
often test the ability to distinguish this concept from closely related distractors, making a clear rationale
essential for mastery. Applying this knowledge in clinical settings supports safe, evidence-based practice and
improves patient outcomes.
3. A client with a 40% total body surface area burn weighs 70 kg. Using the Parkland formula,
how much fluid should be administered in the first 8 hours?
A. 2800 mL
B. 5600 mL
C. 11200 mL
D. 1400 mL
Answer: B
Rationale: Parkland formula: 4mL x 70kg x 40 = 11,200 mL total for 24 hours. Half (5,600 mL) is given in the
first 8 hours. Recognizing this principle allows the nurse to prioritize care, anticipate complications, and provide
accurate patient education. Exam questions often test the ability to distinguish this concept from closely related
distractors, making a clear rationale essential for mastery.
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 2
, NURS 480 Final Exam Comprehensive Review 2026 UPDATE 2026 Update • Verified Answers
4. A patient with a T6 spinal cord injury reports a severe headache and has a BP of 190/110.
What is the priority nursing action?
A. Prepare for a stat CT of the head
B. Administer prescribed PRN antihypertensives
C. Lower the head of the bed
D. Check for bladder distension
Answer: D
Rationale: These are signs of autonomic dysreflexia. The priority is identifying and removing the stimulus,
commonly a full bladder or impacted bowel. Applying this knowledge in clinical settings supports safe,
evidence-based practice and improves patient outcomes. This is an important clinical concept because
selecting the correct answer (D) requires understanding both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing
implications.
5. An arterial blood gas (ABG) shows: pH 7.25, PaCO2 55, HCO3 26. How does the nurse
interpret this result?
A. Respiratory Acidosis
B. Respiratory Alkalosis
C. Metabolic Acidosis
D. Metabolic Alkalosis
Answer: A
Rationale: The pH is low (acidosis) and the PaCO2 is high (respiratory cause), indicating respiratory acidosis.
Applying this knowledge in clinical settings supports safe, evidence-based practice and improves patient
outcomes. This is an important clinical concept because selecting the correct answer (A) requires
understanding both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing implications.
6. What is the primary goal of Positive End-Expiratory Pressure (PEEP) in a patient with ARDS?
A. Decrease the work of breathing
B. Prevent spontaneous pneumothorax
C. Increase the respiratory rate
D. Prevent alveolar collapse at the end of expiration
Answer: D
Rationale: PEEP keeps the alveoli open at the end of expiration to improve gas exchange and oxygenation in
ARDS. Applying this knowledge in clinical settings supports safe, evidence-based practice and improves
patient outcomes. This is an important clinical concept because selecting the correct answer (D) requires
understanding both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing implications.
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 3
✓ VERIFIED • 2026 UPDATE • 100% ACCURATE
NURS 480 Final Exam Comprehensive Review 2026
UPDATE
Actual Exam Questions & Verified Answers
with Detailed Rationales
Document Type: Exam (Elaborations)
Academic Year:
Total Questions: 50 Multiple Choice
Includes: Correct Answers + Full Rationales
Status: Verified & Updated for 2026
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 1
,NURS 480 Final Exam Comprehensive Review 2026 UPDATE 2026 Update • Verified Answers
Questions & Verified Answers
1. A patient in septic shock remains hypotensive after initial fluid resuscitation. Which class of
medication should the nurse anticipate administering next?
A. Vasopressors
B. Loop diuretics
C. Beta-blockers
D. Calcium channel blockers
Answer: A
Rationale: Vasopressors, such as norepinephrine, are indicated when fluid resuscitation fails to achieve
adequate mean arterial pressure in septic shock. This is an important clinical concept because selecting the
correct answer (A) requires understanding both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing implications.
Recognizing this principle allows the nurse to prioritize care, anticipate complications, and provide accurate
patient education.
2. When assessing a patient using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), the nurse notes the patient
opens eyes to sound, uses inappropriate words, and withdraws from pain. What is the score?
A. 9
B. 11
C. 10
D. 12
Answer: C
Rationale: Eyes to sound (3), Inappropriate words (3), Withdraws from pain (4). 3+3+4=10. Exam questions
often test the ability to distinguish this concept from closely related distractors, making a clear rationale
essential for mastery. Applying this knowledge in clinical settings supports safe, evidence-based practice and
improves patient outcomes.
3. A client with a 40% total body surface area burn weighs 70 kg. Using the Parkland formula,
how much fluid should be administered in the first 8 hours?
A. 2800 mL
B. 5600 mL
C. 11200 mL
D. 1400 mL
Answer: B
Rationale: Parkland formula: 4mL x 70kg x 40 = 11,200 mL total for 24 hours. Half (5,600 mL) is given in the
first 8 hours. Recognizing this principle allows the nurse to prioritize care, anticipate complications, and provide
accurate patient education. Exam questions often test the ability to distinguish this concept from closely related
distractors, making a clear rationale essential for mastery.
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 2
, NURS 480 Final Exam Comprehensive Review 2026 UPDATE 2026 Update • Verified Answers
4. A patient with a T6 spinal cord injury reports a severe headache and has a BP of 190/110.
What is the priority nursing action?
A. Prepare for a stat CT of the head
B. Administer prescribed PRN antihypertensives
C. Lower the head of the bed
D. Check for bladder distension
Answer: D
Rationale: These are signs of autonomic dysreflexia. The priority is identifying and removing the stimulus,
commonly a full bladder or impacted bowel. Applying this knowledge in clinical settings supports safe,
evidence-based practice and improves patient outcomes. This is an important clinical concept because
selecting the correct answer (D) requires understanding both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing
implications.
5. An arterial blood gas (ABG) shows: pH 7.25, PaCO2 55, HCO3 26. How does the nurse
interpret this result?
A. Respiratory Acidosis
B. Respiratory Alkalosis
C. Metabolic Acidosis
D. Metabolic Alkalosis
Answer: A
Rationale: The pH is low (acidosis) and the PaCO2 is high (respiratory cause), indicating respiratory acidosis.
Applying this knowledge in clinical settings supports safe, evidence-based practice and improves patient
outcomes. This is an important clinical concept because selecting the correct answer (A) requires
understanding both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing implications.
6. What is the primary goal of Positive End-Expiratory Pressure (PEEP) in a patient with ARDS?
A. Decrease the work of breathing
B. Prevent spontaneous pneumothorax
C. Increase the respiratory rate
D. Prevent alveolar collapse at the end of expiration
Answer: D
Rationale: PEEP keeps the alveoli open at the end of expiration to improve gas exchange and oxygenation in
ARDS. Applying this knowledge in clinical settings supports safe, evidence-based practice and improves
patient outcomes. This is an important clinical concept because selecting the correct answer (D) requires
understanding both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing implications.
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 3
