NUR 3300 Exam 4 Practice - Nursing Practice II 2026 UPD… 2026 Update • Verified Answers
✓ VERIFIED • 2026 UPDATE • 100% ACCURATE
NUR 3300 Exam 4 Practice - Nursing Practice II 2026
UPDATE
Actual Exam Questions & Verified Answers
with Detailed Rationales
Document Type: Exam (Elaborations)
Academic Year:
Total Questions: 50 Multiple Choice
Includes: Correct Answers + Full Rationales
Status: Verified & Updated for 2026
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 1
,NUR 3300 Exam 4 Practice - Nursing Practice II 2026 UPD… 2026 Update • Verified Answers
Questions & Verified Answers
1. A patient’s arterial blood gas (ABG) results show a pH of 7.30, a PaCO2 of 55 mmHg, and a
HCO3 of 24 mEq/L. Which acid-base imbalance does the nurse identify?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
Answer: C
Rationale: The pH is low (acidosis) and the PaCO2 is high (respiratory), indicating respiratory acidosis. The
HCO3 is within normal range, suggesting no compensation yet. Exam questions often test the ability to
distinguish this concept from closely related distractors, making a clear rationale essential for mastery. Applying
this knowledge in clinical settings supports safe, evidence-based practice and improves patient outcomes.
2. A nurse is caring for a patient who has a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which EKG change
should the nurse monitor for?
A. Prominent U waves
B. Tall, peaked T waves
C. ST-segment depression
D. Shortened PR interval
Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (potassium > 5.0 mEq/L) typically causes tall, peaked T waves, widened QRS
complexes, and potentially cardiac arrest. Exam questions often test the ability to distinguish this concept from
closely related distractors, making a clear rationale essential for mastery. Applying this knowledge in clinical
settings supports safe, evidence-based practice and improves patient outcomes.
3. During the preoperative phase, which member of the surgical team is responsible for
obtaining informed consent from the patient?
A. The circulating nurse
B. The scrub technician
C. The anesthesiologist
D. The surgeon
Answer: D
Rationale: It is the surgeon’s legal responsibility to explain the procedure, risks, and benefits and obtain
informed consent. The nurse’s role is to witness the signature. Recognizing this principle allows the nurse to
prioritize care, anticipate complications, and provide accurate patient education.
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 2
, NUR 3300 Exam 4 Practice - Nursing Practice II 2026 UPD… 2026 Update • Verified Answers
4. A patient is 2 hours post-operative and complains of severe abdominal pain. The nurse notes
the surgical dressing is saturated with blood. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Administer the ordered PRN pain medication
B. Change the surgical dressing to assess the wound
C. Reinforce the dressing and check vital signs
D. Encourage the patient to use the incentive spirometer
Answer: C
Rationale: The priority is to assess for hemorrhage (vital signs) and reinforce the dressing. Nurses typically do
not remove the first surgical dressing; the surgeon does. Exam questions often test the ability to distinguish this
concept from closely related distractors, making a clear rationale essential for mastery.
5. Which assessment finding is a positive Trousseau’s sign, indicating hypocalcemia?
A. Carpal spasm induced by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure
B. Twitching of the facial muscles when the facial nerve is tapped
C. Pain in the calf upon dorsiflexion of the foot
D. Numbness and tingling around the mouth
Answer: A
Rationale: Trousseau’s sign is a carpal spasm caused by ischemia when a BP cuff is inflated. A is Chvostek’s
sign. Both indicate hypocalcemia. Applying this knowledge in clinical settings supports safe, evidence-based
practice and improves patient outcomes. This is an important clinical concept because selecting the correct
answer (A) requires understanding both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing implications.
6. The nurse is preparing to administer IV potassium chloride to a patient. Which action is
essential for safety?
A. Administer the potassium via IV push over 2 minutes
B. Use a gravity drip rather than an infusion pump
C. Restrict fluids while the potassium is infusing
D. Ensure the infusion rate does not exceed 10 mEq/hr in a peripheral line
Answer: D
Rationale: Potassium must never be given IV push (it is lethal). It must be diluted and administered via a
pump, usually at a rate not exceeding 10-20 mEq/hr. This is an important clinical concept because selecting the
correct answer (D) requires understanding both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing implications.
Recognizing this principle allows the nurse to prioritize care, anticipate complications, and provide accurate
patient education.
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 3
✓ VERIFIED • 2026 UPDATE • 100% ACCURATE
NUR 3300 Exam 4 Practice - Nursing Practice II 2026
UPDATE
Actual Exam Questions & Verified Answers
with Detailed Rationales
Document Type: Exam (Elaborations)
Academic Year:
Total Questions: 50 Multiple Choice
Includes: Correct Answers + Full Rationales
Status: Verified & Updated for 2026
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 1
,NUR 3300 Exam 4 Practice - Nursing Practice II 2026 UPD… 2026 Update • Verified Answers
Questions & Verified Answers
1. A patient’s arterial blood gas (ABG) results show a pH of 7.30, a PaCO2 of 55 mmHg, and a
HCO3 of 24 mEq/L. Which acid-base imbalance does the nurse identify?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
Answer: C
Rationale: The pH is low (acidosis) and the PaCO2 is high (respiratory), indicating respiratory acidosis. The
HCO3 is within normal range, suggesting no compensation yet. Exam questions often test the ability to
distinguish this concept from closely related distractors, making a clear rationale essential for mastery. Applying
this knowledge in clinical settings supports safe, evidence-based practice and improves patient outcomes.
2. A nurse is caring for a patient who has a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which EKG change
should the nurse monitor for?
A. Prominent U waves
B. Tall, peaked T waves
C. ST-segment depression
D. Shortened PR interval
Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (potassium > 5.0 mEq/L) typically causes tall, peaked T waves, widened QRS
complexes, and potentially cardiac arrest. Exam questions often test the ability to distinguish this concept from
closely related distractors, making a clear rationale essential for mastery. Applying this knowledge in clinical
settings supports safe, evidence-based practice and improves patient outcomes.
3. During the preoperative phase, which member of the surgical team is responsible for
obtaining informed consent from the patient?
A. The circulating nurse
B. The scrub technician
C. The anesthesiologist
D. The surgeon
Answer: D
Rationale: It is the surgeon’s legal responsibility to explain the procedure, risks, and benefits and obtain
informed consent. The nurse’s role is to witness the signature. Recognizing this principle allows the nurse to
prioritize care, anticipate complications, and provide accurate patient education.
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 2
, NUR 3300 Exam 4 Practice - Nursing Practice II 2026 UPD… 2026 Update • Verified Answers
4. A patient is 2 hours post-operative and complains of severe abdominal pain. The nurse notes
the surgical dressing is saturated with blood. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Administer the ordered PRN pain medication
B. Change the surgical dressing to assess the wound
C. Reinforce the dressing and check vital signs
D. Encourage the patient to use the incentive spirometer
Answer: C
Rationale: The priority is to assess for hemorrhage (vital signs) and reinforce the dressing. Nurses typically do
not remove the first surgical dressing; the surgeon does. Exam questions often test the ability to distinguish this
concept from closely related distractors, making a clear rationale essential for mastery.
5. Which assessment finding is a positive Trousseau’s sign, indicating hypocalcemia?
A. Carpal spasm induced by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure
B. Twitching of the facial muscles when the facial nerve is tapped
C. Pain in the calf upon dorsiflexion of the foot
D. Numbness and tingling around the mouth
Answer: A
Rationale: Trousseau’s sign is a carpal spasm caused by ischemia when a BP cuff is inflated. A is Chvostek’s
sign. Both indicate hypocalcemia. Applying this knowledge in clinical settings supports safe, evidence-based
practice and improves patient outcomes. This is an important clinical concept because selecting the correct
answer (A) requires understanding both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing implications.
6. The nurse is preparing to administer IV potassium chloride to a patient. Which action is
essential for safety?
A. Administer the potassium via IV push over 2 minutes
B. Use a gravity drip rather than an infusion pump
C. Restrict fluids while the potassium is infusing
D. Ensure the infusion rate does not exceed 10 mEq/hr in a peripheral line
Answer: D
Rationale: Potassium must never be given IV push (it is lethal). It must be diluted and administered via a
pump, usually at a rate not exceeding 10-20 mEq/hr. This is an important clinical concept because selecting the
correct answer (D) requires understanding both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing implications.
Recognizing this principle allows the nurse to prioritize care, anticipate complications, and provide accurate
patient education.
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 3
