NSG 122 Exam 4 – Nursing Fundamental Concepts Review
New 2024/2025 Update – Comprehensive Practice Exam
SECTION 1: SAFETY & INFECTION CONTROL (Questions 1–15)
1. The nurse prepares to enter a room of a client on droplet precautions. Which PPE is required?
A. N95 respirator
B. Surgical mask
C. Gown only
D. Gloves only
ANSWER: B. Surgical mask
Rationale: Droplet precautions require a surgical mask when entering the room because droplets are
transmitted through coughing, sneezing, or talking. An N95 respirator is required for airborne
precautions, not droplet precautions.
2. Which action demonstrates correct sterile technique?
A. Turning back toward sterile field
B. Holding sterile items below waist
,C. Keeping hands in line of sight
D. Touching the ½-inch border of sterile field
ANSWER: C. Keeping hands in line of sight
Rationale: Sterile items must be kept within the line of sight and above waist level. Turning away from a
sterile field, holding items below the waist, or touching the 1-inch border (which is considered
contaminated) all violate sterile technique.
3. The nurse identifies which client as MOST at risk for falls?
A. 32-year-old post-op
B. 55-year-old with pneumonia
C. 87-year-old with orthostatic hypotension
D. 48-year-old with migraines
ANSWER: C. 87-year-old with orthostatic hypotension
Rationale: Advanced age combined with orthostatic hypotension significantly increases fall risk.
Orthostatic hypotension causes dizziness and syncope upon position changes, making this patient the
highest risk among the options.
4. A fire starts in a client room. Which action does the nurse take FIRST?
A. Extinguish the fire
,B. Activate the alarm
C. Rescue the client
D. Close all doors
ANSWER: C. Rescue the client
Rationale: The RACE mnemonic guides fire response: Rescue anyone in immediate danger, Activate the
alarm, Confine the fire (close doors), and Extinguish the fire. Client safety is always the priority.
5. The nurse notices a UAP attempting to transfer a weak client without a gait belt. What should the
nurse do?
A. Supervise closely
B. Allow if the client agrees
C. Stop and reeducate the UAP
D. Document the incident only
ANSWER: C. Stop and reeducate the UAP
Rationale: The nurse is responsible for supervising UAPs and ensuring safe care. Failing to use a gait belt
during transfer places the client at risk for falls and injury. The nurse must immediately intervene and
provide education.
6. Which of the following require contact precautions? (Select All That Apply)
, □ MRSA
□ C. difficile
□ Influenza
□ RSV in infants
ANSWER: MRSA, C. difficile, RSV in infants
Rationale: Contact precautions are required for organisms transmitted by direct or indirect contact,
including MRSA, C. difficile, and RSV. Influenza requires droplet precautions, not contact precautions.
7. When performing hand hygiene with soap and water, how long should the nurse scrub their hands?
A. At least 20 seconds
B. At least 10 seconds
C. At least 5 seconds
D. At least 60 seconds
ANSWER: A. At least 20 seconds
Rationale: The CDC recommends scrubbing hands for at least 20 seconds with soap and water to
effectively remove transient microorganisms. This duration is approximately equivalent to humming the
"Happy Birthday" song twice. Friction is necessary to break down biofilm and lift dirt from the skin.
New 2024/2025 Update – Comprehensive Practice Exam
SECTION 1: SAFETY & INFECTION CONTROL (Questions 1–15)
1. The nurse prepares to enter a room of a client on droplet precautions. Which PPE is required?
A. N95 respirator
B. Surgical mask
C. Gown only
D. Gloves only
ANSWER: B. Surgical mask
Rationale: Droplet precautions require a surgical mask when entering the room because droplets are
transmitted through coughing, sneezing, or talking. An N95 respirator is required for airborne
precautions, not droplet precautions.
2. Which action demonstrates correct sterile technique?
A. Turning back toward sterile field
B. Holding sterile items below waist
,C. Keeping hands in line of sight
D. Touching the ½-inch border of sterile field
ANSWER: C. Keeping hands in line of sight
Rationale: Sterile items must be kept within the line of sight and above waist level. Turning away from a
sterile field, holding items below the waist, or touching the 1-inch border (which is considered
contaminated) all violate sterile technique.
3. The nurse identifies which client as MOST at risk for falls?
A. 32-year-old post-op
B. 55-year-old with pneumonia
C. 87-year-old with orthostatic hypotension
D. 48-year-old with migraines
ANSWER: C. 87-year-old with orthostatic hypotension
Rationale: Advanced age combined with orthostatic hypotension significantly increases fall risk.
Orthostatic hypotension causes dizziness and syncope upon position changes, making this patient the
highest risk among the options.
4. A fire starts in a client room. Which action does the nurse take FIRST?
A. Extinguish the fire
,B. Activate the alarm
C. Rescue the client
D. Close all doors
ANSWER: C. Rescue the client
Rationale: The RACE mnemonic guides fire response: Rescue anyone in immediate danger, Activate the
alarm, Confine the fire (close doors), and Extinguish the fire. Client safety is always the priority.
5. The nurse notices a UAP attempting to transfer a weak client without a gait belt. What should the
nurse do?
A. Supervise closely
B. Allow if the client agrees
C. Stop and reeducate the UAP
D. Document the incident only
ANSWER: C. Stop and reeducate the UAP
Rationale: The nurse is responsible for supervising UAPs and ensuring safe care. Failing to use a gait belt
during transfer places the client at risk for falls and injury. The nurse must immediately intervene and
provide education.
6. Which of the following require contact precautions? (Select All That Apply)
, □ MRSA
□ C. difficile
□ Influenza
□ RSV in infants
ANSWER: MRSA, C. difficile, RSV in infants
Rationale: Contact precautions are required for organisms transmitted by direct or indirect contact,
including MRSA, C. difficile, and RSV. Influenza requires droplet precautions, not contact precautions.
7. When performing hand hygiene with soap and water, how long should the nurse scrub their hands?
A. At least 20 seconds
B. At least 10 seconds
C. At least 5 seconds
D. At least 60 seconds
ANSWER: A. At least 20 seconds
Rationale: The CDC recommends scrubbing hands for at least 20 seconds with soap and water to
effectively remove transient microorganisms. This duration is approximately equivalent to humming the
"Happy Birthday" song twice. Friction is necessary to break down biofilm and lift dirt from the skin.
