NSG 300 Exam 3 Foundations of Nursing 2026 UPDATE |GCU 2026 Update • Verified Answers
✓ VERIFIED • 2026 UPDATE • 100% ACCURATE
NSG 300 Exam 3 Foundations of Nursing 2026
UPDATE |GCU
Actual Exam Questions & Verified Answers
with Detailed Rationales
Document Type: Exam (Elaborations)
Academic Year:
Total Questions: 50 Multiple Choice
Includes: Correct Answers + Full Rationales
Status: Verified & Updated for 2026
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 1
,NSG 300 Exam 3 Foundations of Nursing 2026 UPDATE |GCU 2026 Update • Verified Answers
Questions & Verified Answers
1. A nurse is calculating the Body Mass Index (BMI) for a client who weighs 90 kg and is 1.7
meters tall. Which BMI category does this client fall into?
A. Underweight
B. Obesity
C. Overweight
D. Normal weight
Answer: B
Rationale: BMI is calculated as weight in kg divided by height in meters squared (.89 = 31.1). A BMI over
30 is classified as obesity. This is an important clinical concept because selecting the correct answer (B)
requires understanding both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing implications. Recognizing this
principle allows the nurse to prioritize care, anticipate complications, and provide accurate patient education.
2. Which of the following electrolyte imbalances is most closely associated with a positive
Chvostek’s sign?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypomagnesemia
Answer: B
Rationale: Chvostek’s sign, a twitching of the facial muscles in response to tapping over the facial nerve, is a
classic sign of hypocalcemia. This is an important clinical concept because selecting the correct answer (B)
requires understanding both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing implications. Recognizing this
principle allows the nurse to prioritize care, anticipate complications, and provide accurate patient education.
3. A client is prescribed a clear liquid diet. Which food item should the nurse remove from the
client’s tray?
A. Apple juice
B. Chicken broth
C. Vanilla pudding
D. Gelatin
Answer: C
Rationale: Vanilla pudding is considered a full liquid diet item because it contains dairy and is not transparent;
clear liquids must be liquid at room temperature and transparent. Exam questions often test the ability to
distinguish this concept from closely related distractors, making a clear rationale essential for mastery.
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 2
, NSG 300 Exam 3 Foundations of Nursing 2026 UPDATE |GCU 2026 Update • Verified Answers
4. When administering a soapsuds enema, in which position should the nurse place the client?
A. High Fowler’s
B. Right-side lying
C. Supine
D. Left-lateral Sim’s
Answer: D
Rationale: The left-lateral Sim’s position allows the enema solution to flow by gravity into the sigmoid colon and
rectum. This is an important clinical concept because selecting the correct answer (D) requires understanding
both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing implications. Recognizing this principle allows the nurse to
prioritize care, anticipate complications, and provide accurate patient education.
5. A nurse is reviewing a client’s Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) results: pH 7.30, PaCO2 55 mmHg,
HCO3 26 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these results?
A. Metabolic Acidosis
B. Respiratory Acidosis
C. Respiratory Alkalosis
D. Metabolic Alkalosis
Answer: B
Rationale: A pH below 7.35 indicates acidosis. A PaCO2 above 45 mmHg indicates a respiratory cause, and
the normal HCO3 suggests no compensation yet. This is an important clinical concept because selecting the
correct answer (B) requires understanding both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing implications.
Recognizing this principle allows the nurse to prioritize care, anticipate complications, and provide accurate
patient education.
6. What is the primary responsibility of the nurse regarding informed consent for a surgical
procedure?
A. Explaining the risks and benefits of the surgery
B. Describing alternative treatments available
C. Witnessing the client’s signature on the consent form
D. Deciding if the client is mentally competent
Answer: C
Rationale: The surgeon is responsible for explaining the procedure; the nurse’s role is to witness the signature
and ensure the client is signing voluntarily and appears competent. Exam questions often test the ability to
distinguish this concept from closely related distractors, making a clear rationale essential for mastery.
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 3
✓ VERIFIED • 2026 UPDATE • 100% ACCURATE
NSG 300 Exam 3 Foundations of Nursing 2026
UPDATE |GCU
Actual Exam Questions & Verified Answers
with Detailed Rationales
Document Type: Exam (Elaborations)
Academic Year:
Total Questions: 50 Multiple Choice
Includes: Correct Answers + Full Rationales
Status: Verified & Updated for 2026
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 1
,NSG 300 Exam 3 Foundations of Nursing 2026 UPDATE |GCU 2026 Update • Verified Answers
Questions & Verified Answers
1. A nurse is calculating the Body Mass Index (BMI) for a client who weighs 90 kg and is 1.7
meters tall. Which BMI category does this client fall into?
A. Underweight
B. Obesity
C. Overweight
D. Normal weight
Answer: B
Rationale: BMI is calculated as weight in kg divided by height in meters squared (.89 = 31.1). A BMI over
30 is classified as obesity. This is an important clinical concept because selecting the correct answer (B)
requires understanding both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing implications. Recognizing this
principle allows the nurse to prioritize care, anticipate complications, and provide accurate patient education.
2. Which of the following electrolyte imbalances is most closely associated with a positive
Chvostek’s sign?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypomagnesemia
Answer: B
Rationale: Chvostek’s sign, a twitching of the facial muscles in response to tapping over the facial nerve, is a
classic sign of hypocalcemia. This is an important clinical concept because selecting the correct answer (B)
requires understanding both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing implications. Recognizing this
principle allows the nurse to prioritize care, anticipate complications, and provide accurate patient education.
3. A client is prescribed a clear liquid diet. Which food item should the nurse remove from the
client’s tray?
A. Apple juice
B. Chicken broth
C. Vanilla pudding
D. Gelatin
Answer: C
Rationale: Vanilla pudding is considered a full liquid diet item because it contains dairy and is not transparent;
clear liquids must be liquid at room temperature and transparent. Exam questions often test the ability to
distinguish this concept from closely related distractors, making a clear rationale essential for mastery.
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 2
, NSG 300 Exam 3 Foundations of Nursing 2026 UPDATE |GCU 2026 Update • Verified Answers
4. When administering a soapsuds enema, in which position should the nurse place the client?
A. High Fowler’s
B. Right-side lying
C. Supine
D. Left-lateral Sim’s
Answer: D
Rationale: The left-lateral Sim’s position allows the enema solution to flow by gravity into the sigmoid colon and
rectum. This is an important clinical concept because selecting the correct answer (D) requires understanding
both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing implications. Recognizing this principle allows the nurse to
prioritize care, anticipate complications, and provide accurate patient education.
5. A nurse is reviewing a client’s Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) results: pH 7.30, PaCO2 55 mmHg,
HCO3 26 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these results?
A. Metabolic Acidosis
B. Respiratory Acidosis
C. Respiratory Alkalosis
D. Metabolic Alkalosis
Answer: B
Rationale: A pH below 7.35 indicates acidosis. A PaCO2 above 45 mmHg indicates a respiratory cause, and
the normal HCO3 suggests no compensation yet. This is an important clinical concept because selecting the
correct answer (B) requires understanding both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing implications.
Recognizing this principle allows the nurse to prioritize care, anticipate complications, and provide accurate
patient education.
6. What is the primary responsibility of the nurse regarding informed consent for a surgical
procedure?
A. Explaining the risks and benefits of the surgery
B. Describing alternative treatments available
C. Witnessing the client’s signature on the consent form
D. Deciding if the client is mentally competent
Answer: C
Rationale: The surgeon is responsible for explaining the procedure; the nurse’s role is to witness the signature
and ensure the client is signing voluntarily and appears competent. Exam questions often test the ability to
distinguish this concept from closely related distractors, making a clear rationale essential for mastery.
Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 3
