NURS 5433 Family II Latest Final Practice
Test – A review of 200 newest Practice
Questions and Correct Verified Answers/
NURS 5433 Final Answered Practice
Exam (UTA )
Section 1: Respiratory Disorders
Question 1
A 19-year-old presents with bilaterally itchy, red eyes with tearing that occurs
intermittently throughout the year and is often accompanied by a rope-like eye
discharge and clear nasal discharge. This is most consistent with:
• A) Allergic conjunctivitis
• B) Bacterial conjunctivitis
• C) Viral conjunctivitis
• D) Blepharitis
Rationale: Allergic conjunctivitis presents with bilateral itching, tearing, and a
characteristic "rope-like" stringy discharge. It is often seasonal or perennial and
accompanied by clear nasal discharge and other allergic symptoms.
,Question 2
Anterior epistaxis is usually caused by:
• A) HTN
• B) Bleeding disorders
• C) Localized nasal mucosa trauma
• D) A foreign body
Rationale: Anterior epistaxis is most commonly caused by localized trauma to the nasal
mucosa, such as nose-picking, dry air, or irritation. While hypertension and bleeding
disorders can contribute, they are not the primary cause of anterior bleeding.
Question 3
A 58-year-old woman presents with a sudden left-sided headache that is most
painful in her left eye. Her vision is blurred, and the left pupil is slightly dilated
and poorly reactive. The left conjunctiva is markedly injected, and the eyeball is
firm. Vision screen with the Snellen chart is 20/30 OD and 20/90 OS. The most
likely diagnosis is:
• A) Angle-closure glaucoma
• B) Anterior uveitis
• C) Unilateral herpetic conjunctivitis
• D) Open-angle glaucoma
Rationale: Acute angle-closure glaucoma presents with sudden onset of severe eye
pain, headache, blurred vision, a fixed and dilated pupil, conjunctival injection, and a
firm eyeball. It is an ocular emergency requiring immediate referral.
,Question 4
Which of the following is most likely to be found on the funduscopic exam in a
patient with untreated primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG)?
• A) Flame-shaped hemorrhages
• B) Excessive cupping of the optic disk
• C) Papilledema
• D) Arteriovenous nicking
Rationale: Primary open-angle glaucoma causes progressive optic nerve damage
characterized by increased cupping of the optic disk (cup-to-disc ratio > 0.5). Flame-
shaped hemorrhages are seen in hypertensive retinopathy, papilledema in increased ICP,
and AV nicking in chronic hypertension.
Question 5
A 22-year-old female presents with a "pimple" on her right eyelid. Exam reveals a
2 mm pustule on the lateral border of the right eyelid margin. What is this most
consistent with?
• A) Blepharitis
• B) Hordeolum
• C) Cellulitis
• D) Chalazion
Rationale: A hordeolum (stye) is an acute infection of the eyelash follicle or meibomian
gland, presenting as a tender pustule on the eyelid margin. Blepharitis is diffuse
, inflammation of the eyelids, cellulitis involves deeper tissue infection, and a chalazion is
a painless granuloma of the meibomian gland.
Question 6
Which of the following is most consistent with the diagnosis of acute bacterial
rhinosinusitis (ABRS)?
• A) Nasal congestion with clear discharge
• B) Upper respiratory tract infection symptoms persisting beyond 7-10 days
• C) Fever less than 101°F
• D) Mild facial pressure
Rationale: Acute bacterial rhinosinusitis is diagnosed when URI symptoms persist
beyond 7-10 days, worsen after 5-7 days (double-sickening), or are severe with fever >
102°F and purulent discharge for ≥3-4 days.
Question 7
Which of the following is NOT consistent with the presentation of asthma that is
not well controlled?
• A) Nocturnal awakenings
• B) Daytime symptoms > 2 days/week
• C) Use of rescue inhaler > 2 days/week
• D) Morning sputum production
Test – A review of 200 newest Practice
Questions and Correct Verified Answers/
NURS 5433 Final Answered Practice
Exam (UTA )
Section 1: Respiratory Disorders
Question 1
A 19-year-old presents with bilaterally itchy, red eyes with tearing that occurs
intermittently throughout the year and is often accompanied by a rope-like eye
discharge and clear nasal discharge. This is most consistent with:
• A) Allergic conjunctivitis
• B) Bacterial conjunctivitis
• C) Viral conjunctivitis
• D) Blepharitis
Rationale: Allergic conjunctivitis presents with bilateral itching, tearing, and a
characteristic "rope-like" stringy discharge. It is often seasonal or perennial and
accompanied by clear nasal discharge and other allergic symptoms.
,Question 2
Anterior epistaxis is usually caused by:
• A) HTN
• B) Bleeding disorders
• C) Localized nasal mucosa trauma
• D) A foreign body
Rationale: Anterior epistaxis is most commonly caused by localized trauma to the nasal
mucosa, such as nose-picking, dry air, or irritation. While hypertension and bleeding
disorders can contribute, they are not the primary cause of anterior bleeding.
Question 3
A 58-year-old woman presents with a sudden left-sided headache that is most
painful in her left eye. Her vision is blurred, and the left pupil is slightly dilated
and poorly reactive. The left conjunctiva is markedly injected, and the eyeball is
firm. Vision screen with the Snellen chart is 20/30 OD and 20/90 OS. The most
likely diagnosis is:
• A) Angle-closure glaucoma
• B) Anterior uveitis
• C) Unilateral herpetic conjunctivitis
• D) Open-angle glaucoma
Rationale: Acute angle-closure glaucoma presents with sudden onset of severe eye
pain, headache, blurred vision, a fixed and dilated pupil, conjunctival injection, and a
firm eyeball. It is an ocular emergency requiring immediate referral.
,Question 4
Which of the following is most likely to be found on the funduscopic exam in a
patient with untreated primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG)?
• A) Flame-shaped hemorrhages
• B) Excessive cupping of the optic disk
• C) Papilledema
• D) Arteriovenous nicking
Rationale: Primary open-angle glaucoma causes progressive optic nerve damage
characterized by increased cupping of the optic disk (cup-to-disc ratio > 0.5). Flame-
shaped hemorrhages are seen in hypertensive retinopathy, papilledema in increased ICP,
and AV nicking in chronic hypertension.
Question 5
A 22-year-old female presents with a "pimple" on her right eyelid. Exam reveals a
2 mm pustule on the lateral border of the right eyelid margin. What is this most
consistent with?
• A) Blepharitis
• B) Hordeolum
• C) Cellulitis
• D) Chalazion
Rationale: A hordeolum (stye) is an acute infection of the eyelash follicle or meibomian
gland, presenting as a tender pustule on the eyelid margin. Blepharitis is diffuse
, inflammation of the eyelids, cellulitis involves deeper tissue infection, and a chalazion is
a painless granuloma of the meibomian gland.
Question 6
Which of the following is most consistent with the diagnosis of acute bacterial
rhinosinusitis (ABRS)?
• A) Nasal congestion with clear discharge
• B) Upper respiratory tract infection symptoms persisting beyond 7-10 days
• C) Fever less than 101°F
• D) Mild facial pressure
Rationale: Acute bacterial rhinosinusitis is diagnosed when URI symptoms persist
beyond 7-10 days, worsen after 5-7 days (double-sickening), or are severe with fever >
102°F and purulent discharge for ≥3-4 days.
Question 7
Which of the following is NOT consistent with the presentation of asthma that is
not well controlled?
• A) Nocturnal awakenings
• B) Daytime symptoms > 2 days/week
• C) Use of rescue inhaler > 2 days/week
• D) Morning sputum production
