BSN Maternal-Newborn Nursing Exam 1 Practice UPDATED
ACTUAL Questions and CORRECT Answers
1. Using Naegele’s rule, calculate the estimated date of delivery (EDD) for a
woman whose last menstrual period (LMP) began on November 1st.
A. August 1st
B. August 8th
C. July 25th
D. August 15th
Answer: B
Rationale: Naegele’s rule is calculated by subtracting 3 months from the first day of the
LMP and adding 7 days and 1 year.
2. A client is pregnant for the 4th time. She has one living child born at 38
weeks, one miscarriage at 10 weeks, and one child born at 34 weeks. What is
her GTPAL?
A. G4 T2 P1 A0 L2
B. G3 T2 P0 A1 L2
C. G4 T1 P1 A1 L2
D. G3 T1 P1 A1 L2
Answer: C
Rationale: G=4 (pregnancies), T=1 (38 weeks), P=1 (34 weeks), A=1 (miscarriage), L=2
(living children).
,3. Which of the following is considered a ‘probable’ sign of pregnancy?
A. Fetal heart tones heard by Doppler
B. Positive pregnancy test
C. Amenorrhea
D. Quickening
Answer: B
Rationale: A positive pregnancy test is a probable sign; fetal heart tones are positive signs;
amenorrhea is presumptive; quickening is presumptive.
4. At 20 weeks of gestation, where should the nurse expect to find the fundus of
the uterus?
A. At the xiphoid process
B. At the symphysis pubis
C. Halfway between the symphysis and umbilicus
D. At the level of the umbilicus
Answer: D
Rationale: By 20 weeks, the fundus is typically located at the level of the umbilicus.
5. An Rh-negative mother should receive Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) at
which point during a normal pregnancy?
A. At 12 weeks gestation
B. Only after delivery
C. At 28 weeks gestation
D. At 36 weeks gestation
Answer: C
Rationale: RhoGAM is standardly administered to Rh-negative mothers at 28 weeks and
within 72 hours post-delivery if the baby is Rh-positive.
, 6. What is the primary purpose of the Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening test?
A. To confirm pregnancy
B. To determine fetal lung maturity
C. To screen for neural tube defects
D. To check for gestational diabetes
Answer: C
Rationale: AFP is a screening tool for neural tube defects (high levels) and chromosomal
abnormalities like Down Syndrome (low levels).
7. A reactive non-stress test (NST) is characterized by:
A. No decelerations for 20 minutes
B. Persistent late decelerations
C. At least two accelerations of 15 bpm lasting 15 seconds in a 20-minute period
D. A fetal heart rate baseline of 110 bpm
Answer: C
Rationale: A reactive NST indicates fetal well-being with at least two accelerations meeting
the 15x15 criteria within 20 minutes.
8. Which symptom is a classic sign of placenta previa?
A. Painful, rigid abdomen
B. Increased uterine contractions
C. Severe lower back pain
D. Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding
Answer: D
Rationale: Placenta previa is characterized by painless, bright red bleeding, whereas
abruptio placentae involves painful, dark red bleeding and a rigid abdomen.
ACTUAL Questions and CORRECT Answers
1. Using Naegele’s rule, calculate the estimated date of delivery (EDD) for a
woman whose last menstrual period (LMP) began on November 1st.
A. August 1st
B. August 8th
C. July 25th
D. August 15th
Answer: B
Rationale: Naegele’s rule is calculated by subtracting 3 months from the first day of the
LMP and adding 7 days and 1 year.
2. A client is pregnant for the 4th time. She has one living child born at 38
weeks, one miscarriage at 10 weeks, and one child born at 34 weeks. What is
her GTPAL?
A. G4 T2 P1 A0 L2
B. G3 T2 P0 A1 L2
C. G4 T1 P1 A1 L2
D. G3 T1 P1 A1 L2
Answer: C
Rationale: G=4 (pregnancies), T=1 (38 weeks), P=1 (34 weeks), A=1 (miscarriage), L=2
(living children).
,3. Which of the following is considered a ‘probable’ sign of pregnancy?
A. Fetal heart tones heard by Doppler
B. Positive pregnancy test
C. Amenorrhea
D. Quickening
Answer: B
Rationale: A positive pregnancy test is a probable sign; fetal heart tones are positive signs;
amenorrhea is presumptive; quickening is presumptive.
4. At 20 weeks of gestation, where should the nurse expect to find the fundus of
the uterus?
A. At the xiphoid process
B. At the symphysis pubis
C. Halfway between the symphysis and umbilicus
D. At the level of the umbilicus
Answer: D
Rationale: By 20 weeks, the fundus is typically located at the level of the umbilicus.
5. An Rh-negative mother should receive Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) at
which point during a normal pregnancy?
A. At 12 weeks gestation
B. Only after delivery
C. At 28 weeks gestation
D. At 36 weeks gestation
Answer: C
Rationale: RhoGAM is standardly administered to Rh-negative mothers at 28 weeks and
within 72 hours post-delivery if the baby is Rh-positive.
, 6. What is the primary purpose of the Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening test?
A. To confirm pregnancy
B. To determine fetal lung maturity
C. To screen for neural tube defects
D. To check for gestational diabetes
Answer: C
Rationale: AFP is a screening tool for neural tube defects (high levels) and chromosomal
abnormalities like Down Syndrome (low levels).
7. A reactive non-stress test (NST) is characterized by:
A. No decelerations for 20 minutes
B. Persistent late decelerations
C. At least two accelerations of 15 bpm lasting 15 seconds in a 20-minute period
D. A fetal heart rate baseline of 110 bpm
Answer: C
Rationale: A reactive NST indicates fetal well-being with at least two accelerations meeting
the 15x15 criteria within 20 minutes.
8. Which symptom is a classic sign of placenta previa?
A. Painful, rigid abdomen
B. Increased uterine contractions
C. Severe lower back pain
D. Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding
Answer: D
Rationale: Placenta previa is characterized by painless, bright red bleeding, whereas
abruptio placentae involves painful, dark red bleeding and a rigid abdomen.
