BSN Advanced Pharmacology Exam 6 Practice 2026
UPDATED ACTUAL Questions and CORRECT Answers
1. A patient receiving lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder presents with a
lithium level of 2.1 mEq/L. Which clinical manifestation is most likely?
A. Mild thirst and polyuria
B. Fine hand tremors and nausea
C. Confusion, ataxia, and blurred vision
D. Hyperactivity and increased appetite
Answer: C
Rationale: A lithium level of 2.1 mEq/L indicates moderate to severe toxicity. Symptoms
include neurological changes like ataxia, confusion, and blurred vision, as well as persistent
GI distress.
2. A patient is started on fluoxetine (Prozac). Which symptom should the nurse
instruct the patient to report immediately as a potential sign of Serotonin
Syndrome?
A. Dry mouth and constipation
B. Fever, agitation, and hyperreflexia
C. Weight gain and drowsiness
D. Decreased libido and sexual dysfunction
Answer: B
Rationale: Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition characterized by
mental status changes (agitation), autonomic hyperactivity (fever), and neuromuscular
abnormalities (hyperreflexia).
,3. When teaching a patient about Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs),
which food should the nurse advise the patient to avoid?
A. Fresh green leafy vegetables
B. Citrus fruits and juices
C. Pasteurized milk and yogurt
D. Aged cheeses and cured meats
Answer: D
Rationale: Foods high in tyramine, such as aged cheeses, cured meats, and fermented
products, can cause a hypertensive crisis when consumed by a patient taking MAOIs.
4. A patient is brought to the emergency department with a suspected
benzodiazepine overdose. Which medication should the nurse anticipate
administering?
A. Naloxone
B. Flumazenil
C. Physostigmine
D. Acetylcysteine
Answer: B
Rationale: Flumazenil is the specific competitive benzodiazepine receptor antagonist used
to reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines.
5. A patient taking haloperidol develops high fever, muscle rigidity, and
autonomic instability. Which condition does the nurse suspect?
A. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
B. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)
C. Acute dystonic reaction
D. Tardive dyskinesia
Answer: B
, Rationale: NMS is a rare but fatal reaction to antipsychotics characterized by ‘lead-pipe’
rigidity, high fever, and unstable blood pressure.
6. Following the administration of morphine IV, a patient’s respiratory rate
drops to 6 breaths/minute. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Perform a vigorous sternal rub
B. Apply 100% oxygen via non-rebreather mask
C. Administer naloxone (Narcan) IV
D. Call for a STAT chest X-ray
Answer: C
Rationale: Severe respiratory depression (RR < 8) following opioid administration is a
medical emergency that requires the opioid antagonist naloxone.
7. Which teaching point is most important for a patient prescribed celecoxib
(Celebrex) for osteoarthritis?
A. This drug will turn urine an orange-red color.
B. Report any black, tarry stools immediately.
C. Avoid taking aspirin while on this medication.
D. Take the medication on an empty stomach for better absorption.
Answer: B
Rationale: While celecoxib is a COX-2 inhibitor with lower GI risk than traditional NSAIDs,
it still carries a risk for GI bleeding, which manifest as black, tarry stools.
8. A patient is experiencing an acute gout attack. Which medication is most
appropriate for rapid relief of inflammation?
A. Allopurinol
B. Colchicine
C. Febuxostat
D. Probenecid
Answer: B
UPDATED ACTUAL Questions and CORRECT Answers
1. A patient receiving lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder presents with a
lithium level of 2.1 mEq/L. Which clinical manifestation is most likely?
A. Mild thirst and polyuria
B. Fine hand tremors and nausea
C. Confusion, ataxia, and blurred vision
D. Hyperactivity and increased appetite
Answer: C
Rationale: A lithium level of 2.1 mEq/L indicates moderate to severe toxicity. Symptoms
include neurological changes like ataxia, confusion, and blurred vision, as well as persistent
GI distress.
2. A patient is started on fluoxetine (Prozac). Which symptom should the nurse
instruct the patient to report immediately as a potential sign of Serotonin
Syndrome?
A. Dry mouth and constipation
B. Fever, agitation, and hyperreflexia
C. Weight gain and drowsiness
D. Decreased libido and sexual dysfunction
Answer: B
Rationale: Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition characterized by
mental status changes (agitation), autonomic hyperactivity (fever), and neuromuscular
abnormalities (hyperreflexia).
,3. When teaching a patient about Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs),
which food should the nurse advise the patient to avoid?
A. Fresh green leafy vegetables
B. Citrus fruits and juices
C. Pasteurized milk and yogurt
D. Aged cheeses and cured meats
Answer: D
Rationale: Foods high in tyramine, such as aged cheeses, cured meats, and fermented
products, can cause a hypertensive crisis when consumed by a patient taking MAOIs.
4. A patient is brought to the emergency department with a suspected
benzodiazepine overdose. Which medication should the nurse anticipate
administering?
A. Naloxone
B. Flumazenil
C. Physostigmine
D. Acetylcysteine
Answer: B
Rationale: Flumazenil is the specific competitive benzodiazepine receptor antagonist used
to reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines.
5. A patient taking haloperidol develops high fever, muscle rigidity, and
autonomic instability. Which condition does the nurse suspect?
A. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
B. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)
C. Acute dystonic reaction
D. Tardive dyskinesia
Answer: B
, Rationale: NMS is a rare but fatal reaction to antipsychotics characterized by ‘lead-pipe’
rigidity, high fever, and unstable blood pressure.
6. Following the administration of morphine IV, a patient’s respiratory rate
drops to 6 breaths/minute. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Perform a vigorous sternal rub
B. Apply 100% oxygen via non-rebreather mask
C. Administer naloxone (Narcan) IV
D. Call for a STAT chest X-ray
Answer: C
Rationale: Severe respiratory depression (RR < 8) following opioid administration is a
medical emergency that requires the opioid antagonist naloxone.
7. Which teaching point is most important for a patient prescribed celecoxib
(Celebrex) for osteoarthritis?
A. This drug will turn urine an orange-red color.
B. Report any black, tarry stools immediately.
C. Avoid taking aspirin while on this medication.
D. Take the medication on an empty stomach for better absorption.
Answer: B
Rationale: While celecoxib is a COX-2 inhibitor with lower GI risk than traditional NSAIDs,
it still carries a risk for GI bleeding, which manifest as black, tarry stools.
8. A patient is experiencing an acute gout attack. Which medication is most
appropriate for rapid relief of inflammation?
A. Allopurinol
B. Colchicine
C. Febuxostat
D. Probenecid
Answer: B
