BSN Advanced Pharmacology - Exam 4 Practice Questions
2026 UPDATED ACTUAL Questions and CORRECT Answers
1. A patient is prescribed Lisinopril for the management of hypertension. The
nurse should monitor for which common side effect associated with ACE
inhibitors?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Persistent dry cough
C. Hypokalemia
D. Peripheral edema
Answer: B
Rationale: ACE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of bradykinin and substance P, which
can lead to a persistent, non-productive dry cough in some patients.
2. Which laboratory value is most important to monitor for a patient receiving a
continuous Heparin infusion?
A. Prothrombin Time (PT)
B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
D. Platelet count only
Answer: C
Rationale: The aPTT is the standard laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of
unfractionated heparin therapy.
,3. A patient is diagnosed with Digoxin toxicity. Which of the following clinical
manifestations is most indicative of this condition?
A. Increased appetite
B. Hypertension
C. Visual disturbances such as yellow or green halos
D. Tachycardia
Answer: C
Rationale: Visual disturbances, including yellow, green, or white halos around objects, are
classic signs of digoxin toxicity, along with bradycardia and nausea.
4. The nurse is preparing to administer Spironolactone to a patient with heart
failure. Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse be most concerned
about?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hyperkalemia
Answer: D
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that inhibits aldosterone, which
can lead to the retention of potassium and subsequent hyperkalemia.
5. What is the primary mechanism of action of Warfarin?
A. Interfering with the synthesis of Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors
B. Inhibiting the conversion of Prothrombin to Thrombin
C. Directly inhibiting Factor Xa
D. Activating Plasminogen to Plasmin
Answer: A
Rationale: Warfarin works by inhibiting the enzyme Vitamin K epoxide reductase, thereby
interfering with the hepatic synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X.
, 6. Which medication is considered the drug of choice for the termination of
paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT)?
A. Amiodarone
B. Atropine
C. Adenosine
D. Epinephrine
Answer: C
Rationale: Adenosine is the first-line drug for PSVT due to its ability to slow conduction
through the AV node and restore normal sinus rhythm.
7. A patient on Atorvastatin therapy reports new-onset muscle pain and
weakness. Which laboratory test should the nurse anticipate the provider will
order?
A. Creatine Kinase (CK)
B. Serum Amylase
C. Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)
D. Hemoglobin A1c
Answer: A
Rationale: Muscle pain in patients taking statins may indicate rhabdomyolysis or
myopathy; elevated Creatine Kinase levels confirm muscle damage.
8. Which of the following is the reversal agent for Warfarin?
A. Protamine Sulfate
B. Vitamin K
C. Flumazenil
D. Naloxone
Answer: B
Rationale: Vitamin K is the antidote for Warfarin. Protamine sulfate is for heparin,
flumazenil for benzodiazepines, and naloxone for opioids.
2026 UPDATED ACTUAL Questions and CORRECT Answers
1. A patient is prescribed Lisinopril for the management of hypertension. The
nurse should monitor for which common side effect associated with ACE
inhibitors?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Persistent dry cough
C. Hypokalemia
D. Peripheral edema
Answer: B
Rationale: ACE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of bradykinin and substance P, which
can lead to a persistent, non-productive dry cough in some patients.
2. Which laboratory value is most important to monitor for a patient receiving a
continuous Heparin infusion?
A. Prothrombin Time (PT)
B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
D. Platelet count only
Answer: C
Rationale: The aPTT is the standard laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of
unfractionated heparin therapy.
,3. A patient is diagnosed with Digoxin toxicity. Which of the following clinical
manifestations is most indicative of this condition?
A. Increased appetite
B. Hypertension
C. Visual disturbances such as yellow or green halos
D. Tachycardia
Answer: C
Rationale: Visual disturbances, including yellow, green, or white halos around objects, are
classic signs of digoxin toxicity, along with bradycardia and nausea.
4. The nurse is preparing to administer Spironolactone to a patient with heart
failure. Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse be most concerned
about?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hyperkalemia
Answer: D
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that inhibits aldosterone, which
can lead to the retention of potassium and subsequent hyperkalemia.
5. What is the primary mechanism of action of Warfarin?
A. Interfering with the synthesis of Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors
B. Inhibiting the conversion of Prothrombin to Thrombin
C. Directly inhibiting Factor Xa
D. Activating Plasminogen to Plasmin
Answer: A
Rationale: Warfarin works by inhibiting the enzyme Vitamin K epoxide reductase, thereby
interfering with the hepatic synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X.
, 6. Which medication is considered the drug of choice for the termination of
paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT)?
A. Amiodarone
B. Atropine
C. Adenosine
D. Epinephrine
Answer: C
Rationale: Adenosine is the first-line drug for PSVT due to its ability to slow conduction
through the AV node and restore normal sinus rhythm.
7. A patient on Atorvastatin therapy reports new-onset muscle pain and
weakness. Which laboratory test should the nurse anticipate the provider will
order?
A. Creatine Kinase (CK)
B. Serum Amylase
C. Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)
D. Hemoglobin A1c
Answer: A
Rationale: Muscle pain in patients taking statins may indicate rhabdomyolysis or
myopathy; elevated Creatine Kinase levels confirm muscle damage.
8. Which of the following is the reversal agent for Warfarin?
A. Protamine Sulfate
B. Vitamin K
C. Flumazenil
D. Naloxone
Answer: B
Rationale: Vitamin K is the antidote for Warfarin. Protamine sulfate is for heparin,
flumazenil for benzodiazepines, and naloxone for opioids.
