MEDI-CAL PEER SUPPORT SPECIALIST | UPDATED EXAM QUESTIONS
AND VERIFIED SOLUTIONS 2026/2027
1. A peer support specialist's progress notes should primarily reflect:
A) The specialist's personal opinion of the client's prognosis
B) Objective, service-related interactions and the client's own goals
— Notes document the peer service delivered and progress toward the
client's own goals, not clinical judgments.
C) A clinical diagnosis and treatment recommendation
D) A summary of the client's entire psychiatric history
2. Under 42 CFR Part 2, substance use disorder treatment records
generally require:
A) No special protection beyond standard HIPAA rules
B) A separate, specific written consent before disclosure — Part 2
sets a higher bar than HIPAA, requiring specific written consent for most
SUD record disclosures.
C) Automatic sharing with any Medi-Cal provider
D) Verbal consent only
3. If a peer support specialist is unsure whether a note should include a
sensitive disclosure, the best first step is to:
A) Leave it out entirely without discussion
B) Consult supervision guidance and agency policy — Supervision
and agency documentation policy exist precisely to guide these judgment
calls.
C) Post the question in a public team chat
D) Ask the client's family member instead
4. Medi-Cal billing for peer support services generally requires
documentation that ties the service to:
A) A specific goal in the individual's service or care plan —
Reimbursable services must be linked to a documented, goal-directed
service plan.
B) The specialist's personal caseload average
, C) The client's employer
D) An unrelated administrative form
5. A signed release of information (ROI) is generally required before a
peer support specialist may:
A) Greet a client in a waiting room
B) Share protected health information with an outside party —
Sharing PHI outside the treatment team typically requires a valid, specific
ROI.
C) Attend a team huddle about caseload numbers
D) Complete their own timesheet
6. Which of the following is an appropriate use of supervision time for a
peer support specialist?
A) Reviewing challenging cases and processing their own reactions
— Supervision supports safe, ethical practice and reflective processing
throughout a peer specialist's career.
B) Discussing another client's case with no supervisory purpose
C) Avoiding supervision to protect client confidentiality
D) Skipping supervision once fully certified
7. California's Medi-Cal Peer Support Specialist certification generally
must be renewed:
A) Never — it is permanent once issued
B) Periodically, with continuing education requirements —
Certification renewal on a set cycle with continuing education helps
maintain competency standards.
C) Only if the specialist changes employers
D) Every time a client is assigned
8. A peer support specialist notices a documentation error in a note
they wrote yesterday. The best practice is to:
A) Delete the original note quietly
B) Correct it using the agency's approved amendment process —
Records should be amended transparently, following the agency's
documented correction procedure, not altered or hidden.
C) Ignore it since it was already submitted
D) Ask a coworker to change it under their own name
,9. When collaborating with a multidisciplinary team, a peer support
specialist primarily contributes:
A) A clinical diagnosis
B) A lived-experience and recovery-oriented perspective — The peer
specialist's unique value on the team is their lived experience and recovery
perspective, not clinical authority.
C) Medication management decisions
D) Legal advice
10. Timeliness of documentation matters most because it:
A) Impresses supervisors
B) Supports accuracy, continuity of care, and billing compliance —
Prompt, accurate documentation keeps the record reliable for both care
coordination and compliance.
C) Is only relevant for annual audits
D) Has no real impact on service quality
11. A mandated reporter obligation applies to a peer support specialist
when they:
A) Disagree with a client's treatment plan
B) Learn of suspected abuse or neglect of a child or dependent adult
— Suspected abuse or neglect of a protected population triggers mandated
reporting regardless of role.
C) Hear a client express a political opinion
D) Are asked to keep a routine appointment confidential
12. Which is the most appropriate way to store client information
collected on a personal notepad during a home visit?
A) Keep it indefinitely in a personal bag
B) Transfer it into the official record promptly, then securely
dispose of the notes per policy — Informal notes should be transferred
into the official record and disposed of securely to protect confidentiality.
C) Post a summary on social media
D) Leave it in the client's mailbox
13. A grievance filed against a peer support specialist for a code-of-
ethics violation is typically reviewed by:
A) The client's neighbors
, B) The certifying/credentialing body's designated process — Ethics
complaints go through the certifying body's or employer's formal review
process.
C) No one — grievances are not tracked
D) The specialist alone
14. Which best describes appropriate use of an electronic health record
(EHR) by a peer support specialist?
A) Accessing only the records of clients they are actively serving, for
documented purposes — EHR access should be limited to assigned
clients and legitimate work purposes, consistent with confidentiality rules.
B) Browsing any client's chart out of curiosity
C) Sharing login credentials with a colleague for convenience
D) Leaving the record open and unattended in a public area
15. An informed consent conversation before beginning peer services
should include:
A) The limits of confidentiality and the voluntary nature of services
— Informed consent covers confidentiality limits and the voluntary, client-
directed nature of peer support.
B) A guarantee of a specific clinical outcome
C) A requirement to disclose the client's full history immediately
D) A promise that services are mandatory
16. A peer support specialist's scope of practice is best defined by:
A) Whatever the client requests, regardless of training
B) State certification standards, agency policy, and their training —
Scope of practice is set by certification requirements, training, and
organizational policy — not personal discretion.
C) Personal preference alone
D) Instructions from an unrelated department
17. When a service plan goal is met, the peer support specialist should
typically:
A) Continue documenting toward it indefinitely without change
B) Update the plan collaboratively with the client to reflect new
goals — Plans are living documents updated collaboratively as goals are
achieved or priorities shift.
C) Close the case immediately without discussion
AND VERIFIED SOLUTIONS 2026/2027
1. A peer support specialist's progress notes should primarily reflect:
A) The specialist's personal opinion of the client's prognosis
B) Objective, service-related interactions and the client's own goals
— Notes document the peer service delivered and progress toward the
client's own goals, not clinical judgments.
C) A clinical diagnosis and treatment recommendation
D) A summary of the client's entire psychiatric history
2. Under 42 CFR Part 2, substance use disorder treatment records
generally require:
A) No special protection beyond standard HIPAA rules
B) A separate, specific written consent before disclosure — Part 2
sets a higher bar than HIPAA, requiring specific written consent for most
SUD record disclosures.
C) Automatic sharing with any Medi-Cal provider
D) Verbal consent only
3. If a peer support specialist is unsure whether a note should include a
sensitive disclosure, the best first step is to:
A) Leave it out entirely without discussion
B) Consult supervision guidance and agency policy — Supervision
and agency documentation policy exist precisely to guide these judgment
calls.
C) Post the question in a public team chat
D) Ask the client's family member instead
4. Medi-Cal billing for peer support services generally requires
documentation that ties the service to:
A) A specific goal in the individual's service or care plan —
Reimbursable services must be linked to a documented, goal-directed
service plan.
B) The specialist's personal caseload average
, C) The client's employer
D) An unrelated administrative form
5. A signed release of information (ROI) is generally required before a
peer support specialist may:
A) Greet a client in a waiting room
B) Share protected health information with an outside party —
Sharing PHI outside the treatment team typically requires a valid, specific
ROI.
C) Attend a team huddle about caseload numbers
D) Complete their own timesheet
6. Which of the following is an appropriate use of supervision time for a
peer support specialist?
A) Reviewing challenging cases and processing their own reactions
— Supervision supports safe, ethical practice and reflective processing
throughout a peer specialist's career.
B) Discussing another client's case with no supervisory purpose
C) Avoiding supervision to protect client confidentiality
D) Skipping supervision once fully certified
7. California's Medi-Cal Peer Support Specialist certification generally
must be renewed:
A) Never — it is permanent once issued
B) Periodically, with continuing education requirements —
Certification renewal on a set cycle with continuing education helps
maintain competency standards.
C) Only if the specialist changes employers
D) Every time a client is assigned
8. A peer support specialist notices a documentation error in a note
they wrote yesterday. The best practice is to:
A) Delete the original note quietly
B) Correct it using the agency's approved amendment process —
Records should be amended transparently, following the agency's
documented correction procedure, not altered or hidden.
C) Ignore it since it was already submitted
D) Ask a coworker to change it under their own name
,9. When collaborating with a multidisciplinary team, a peer support
specialist primarily contributes:
A) A clinical diagnosis
B) A lived-experience and recovery-oriented perspective — The peer
specialist's unique value on the team is their lived experience and recovery
perspective, not clinical authority.
C) Medication management decisions
D) Legal advice
10. Timeliness of documentation matters most because it:
A) Impresses supervisors
B) Supports accuracy, continuity of care, and billing compliance —
Prompt, accurate documentation keeps the record reliable for both care
coordination and compliance.
C) Is only relevant for annual audits
D) Has no real impact on service quality
11. A mandated reporter obligation applies to a peer support specialist
when they:
A) Disagree with a client's treatment plan
B) Learn of suspected abuse or neglect of a child or dependent adult
— Suspected abuse or neglect of a protected population triggers mandated
reporting regardless of role.
C) Hear a client express a political opinion
D) Are asked to keep a routine appointment confidential
12. Which is the most appropriate way to store client information
collected on a personal notepad during a home visit?
A) Keep it indefinitely in a personal bag
B) Transfer it into the official record promptly, then securely
dispose of the notes per policy — Informal notes should be transferred
into the official record and disposed of securely to protect confidentiality.
C) Post a summary on social media
D) Leave it in the client's mailbox
13. A grievance filed against a peer support specialist for a code-of-
ethics violation is typically reviewed by:
A) The client's neighbors
, B) The certifying/credentialing body's designated process — Ethics
complaints go through the certifying body's or employer's formal review
process.
C) No one — grievances are not tracked
D) The specialist alone
14. Which best describes appropriate use of an electronic health record
(EHR) by a peer support specialist?
A) Accessing only the records of clients they are actively serving, for
documented purposes — EHR access should be limited to assigned
clients and legitimate work purposes, consistent with confidentiality rules.
B) Browsing any client's chart out of curiosity
C) Sharing login credentials with a colleague for convenience
D) Leaving the record open and unattended in a public area
15. An informed consent conversation before beginning peer services
should include:
A) The limits of confidentiality and the voluntary nature of services
— Informed consent covers confidentiality limits and the voluntary, client-
directed nature of peer support.
B) A guarantee of a specific clinical outcome
C) A requirement to disclose the client's full history immediately
D) A promise that services are mandatory
16. A peer support specialist's scope of practice is best defined by:
A) Whatever the client requests, regardless of training
B) State certification standards, agency policy, and their training —
Scope of practice is set by certification requirements, training, and
organizational policy — not personal discretion.
C) Personal preference alone
D) Instructions from an unrelated department
17. When a service plan goal is met, the peer support specialist should
typically:
A) Continue documenting toward it indefinitely without change
B) Update the plan collaboratively with the client to reflect new
goals — Plans are living documents updated collaboratively as goals are
achieved or priorities shift.
C) Close the case immediately without discussion
