HESI FUNDAMENTALS | ACTUAL EXAM | QUESTIONS
WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS | 2026 UPDATE
Question 1
The UAPs working on a chronic neuro unit ask the nurse to help them determine
the safest way to transfer an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed
to the chair. What method describes the correct transfer procedure for this
client?
A. Place the chair at a right angle to the bed on the client's left side before moving.
B. Assist the client to a standing position, then place the right hand on the armrest.
C. Have the client place the left foot next to the chair and pivot to the left before sitting.
D. Move the chair parallel to the right side of the bed, and stand the client on the right
foot
CORRECT ANSWER
✅- (D) uses the client's stronger side, the right side, for weight-bearing during
the transfer, and is the safest approach to take. (A, B, and C) are unsafe
methods of transfer and include the use of poor body mechanics by the
caregiver.
Correct Answer: D
Question 2
A client who is in hospice care complains of increasing amounts of pain. The
healthcare provider prescribes an analgesic every four hours as needed.
Which action should the nurse implement?
A. Give an around-the-clock schedule for administration of analgesics.
B. Administer analgesic medication as needed when the pain is severe.
C. Provide medication to keep the client sedated and unaware of stimuli.
D. Offer a medication-free period so that the client can do daily activities.
CORRECT ANSWER
,⬛ - The most effective management of pain is achieved using an around-the-clock
✓
schedule that provides analgesic medications on a regular basis (A) and in a timely
manner. Analgesics Hesi Fundamentals 2025 exam. Correctly answered. are less
effective if pain persists until it is severe, so an analgesic medication should be
administered before the client's pain peaks
(B). Providing comfort is a priority for the client who is dying, but sedation that impairs
the client's ability to interact and experience the time before life ends should be
minimized (C).
Offering a medication-free period allows the serum drug level to fall, which is not an
effective method to manage chronic pain (D).
Correct Answer: A
Question 3
The nurse is administering medications through a nasogastric tube (NGT) which
is
connected to suction. After ensuring correct tube placement, what action should
the nurse take next?
A. Clamp the tube for 20 minutes.
B. Flush the tube with water.
C. Administer the medications as prescribed.
D. Crush the tablets and dissolve in sterile water.
CORRECT ANSWER
✅- The NGT should be flushed before, after and in between each medication
administered (B). Once all medications are administered, the NGT should be
clamped for 20 minutes (A). (C and D) may be implemented only after the
tubing has been flushed.
Correct Answer: B
Question 4
When assessing a client with wrist restraints, the nurse observes that the
fingers on the right hand are blue. What action should the nurse implement
first?
A. Loosen the right wrist restraint.
, B. Apply a pulse oximeter to the right hand.Compare hand color bilaterally.
C. Palpate the right radial pulse.
CORRECT ANSWER
✅- The priority nursing action is to restore circulation by loosening the
restraint (A), because blue fingers (cyanosis) indicates decreased circulation.
(C and D) are also important nursing interventions, but do not have the priority
of(A). Pulse oximetry (B) measures the saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen
and is not indicated in situations where the cyanosis is related to mechanical
compression (the restraints).
Correct Answer: A
Question 5
A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription levofloxacin
(Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns
to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the nurse to implement?
A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form.
B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule in the morning.
C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose.
D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.
CORRECT ANSWER
✅- To ensure that a therapeutic level of medication is maintained, the nurse
should administer the missed dose as soon as possible, and revise the
administration schedule accordingly to prevent dangerously increasing the level
of the medication in the
bloodstream (D). The nurse should document the reason for the late dose, but
(A and C) are not warranted. (B) could result in increased blood levels of the
drug.
Correct Answer: D
Question 6
The nurse is assessing the nutritional status of several clients. Which client
has the greatest nutritional need for additional intake of protein?
WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS | 2026 UPDATE
Question 1
The UAPs working on a chronic neuro unit ask the nurse to help them determine
the safest way to transfer an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed
to the chair. What method describes the correct transfer procedure for this
client?
A. Place the chair at a right angle to the bed on the client's left side before moving.
B. Assist the client to a standing position, then place the right hand on the armrest.
C. Have the client place the left foot next to the chair and pivot to the left before sitting.
D. Move the chair parallel to the right side of the bed, and stand the client on the right
foot
CORRECT ANSWER
✅- (D) uses the client's stronger side, the right side, for weight-bearing during
the transfer, and is the safest approach to take. (A, B, and C) are unsafe
methods of transfer and include the use of poor body mechanics by the
caregiver.
Correct Answer: D
Question 2
A client who is in hospice care complains of increasing amounts of pain. The
healthcare provider prescribes an analgesic every four hours as needed.
Which action should the nurse implement?
A. Give an around-the-clock schedule for administration of analgesics.
B. Administer analgesic medication as needed when the pain is severe.
C. Provide medication to keep the client sedated and unaware of stimuli.
D. Offer a medication-free period so that the client can do daily activities.
CORRECT ANSWER
,⬛ - The most effective management of pain is achieved using an around-the-clock
✓
schedule that provides analgesic medications on a regular basis (A) and in a timely
manner. Analgesics Hesi Fundamentals 2025 exam. Correctly answered. are less
effective if pain persists until it is severe, so an analgesic medication should be
administered before the client's pain peaks
(B). Providing comfort is a priority for the client who is dying, but sedation that impairs
the client's ability to interact and experience the time before life ends should be
minimized (C).
Offering a medication-free period allows the serum drug level to fall, which is not an
effective method to manage chronic pain (D).
Correct Answer: A
Question 3
The nurse is administering medications through a nasogastric tube (NGT) which
is
connected to suction. After ensuring correct tube placement, what action should
the nurse take next?
A. Clamp the tube for 20 minutes.
B. Flush the tube with water.
C. Administer the medications as prescribed.
D. Crush the tablets and dissolve in sterile water.
CORRECT ANSWER
✅- The NGT should be flushed before, after and in between each medication
administered (B). Once all medications are administered, the NGT should be
clamped for 20 minutes (A). (C and D) may be implemented only after the
tubing has been flushed.
Correct Answer: B
Question 4
When assessing a client with wrist restraints, the nurse observes that the
fingers on the right hand are blue. What action should the nurse implement
first?
A. Loosen the right wrist restraint.
, B. Apply a pulse oximeter to the right hand.Compare hand color bilaterally.
C. Palpate the right radial pulse.
CORRECT ANSWER
✅- The priority nursing action is to restore circulation by loosening the
restraint (A), because blue fingers (cyanosis) indicates decreased circulation.
(C and D) are also important nursing interventions, but do not have the priority
of(A). Pulse oximetry (B) measures the saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen
and is not indicated in situations where the cyanosis is related to mechanical
compression (the restraints).
Correct Answer: A
Question 5
A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription levofloxacin
(Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns
to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the nurse to implement?
A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form.
B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule in the morning.
C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose.
D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.
CORRECT ANSWER
✅- To ensure that a therapeutic level of medication is maintained, the nurse
should administer the missed dose as soon as possible, and revise the
administration schedule accordingly to prevent dangerously increasing the level
of the medication in the
bloodstream (D). The nurse should document the reason for the late dose, but
(A and C) are not warranted. (B) could result in increased blood levels of the
drug.
Correct Answer: D
Question 6
The nurse is assessing the nutritional status of several clients. Which client
has the greatest nutritional need for additional intake of protein?
