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HESI Health Assessment 2026/2027 150 Practice Questions, Answers & Rationales

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HESI Health Assessment 2026/2027 150 Practice Questions, Answers & Rationales

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HESI Health Assessment 2026/2027
150 Practice Questions, Answers & Rationales

1. What is the correct sequence for assessing the abdomen?
A. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
B. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
C. Auscultation, Inspection, Palpation, Percussion
D. Percussion, Palpation, Inspection, Auscultation
Answer: B
Rationale: Auscultation is done before percussion/palpation to avoid altering bowel sounds.


2. A nurse uses the dorsal surface of the hand to assess:
A. Texture
B. Temperature
C. Vibrations
D. Fluid levels
Answer: B
Rationale: The back of the hand is most sensitive to temperature.


3. The 'Phalen test' is used to assess for:
A. Scoliosis
B. Carpal tunnel syndrome
C. Hip dysplasia
D. Hearing loss
Answer: B
Rationale: Holding wrists in flexion for 60s to check for median nerve compression.


4. Which cranial nerve is responsible for the gag reflex?
A. CN V
B. CN VII
C. CN IX & X
D. CN XII
Answer: C
Rationale: Glossopharyngeal and Vagus nerves manage the sensory/motor gag reflex.


5. A normal capillary refill time should be:
A. Less than 3 seconds
B. Exactly 5 seconds
C. 10 seconds
D. Instantaneous
Answer: A
Rationale: Refill > 3s suggests poor peripheral perfusion.


6. Where is the mitral area located for auscultation?
A. 2nd ICS, RSB
B. 2nd ICS, LSB
C. 5th ICS, MCL
D. 4th ICS, LSB
Answer: C
Rationale: The mitral area (apical pulse) is at the 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line.

,7. What does a 2+ pulse amplitude signify?
A. Absent
B. Weak
C. Normal
D. Bounding
Answer: C
Rationale: 2+ is the standard 'normal' pulse grade.


8. Which percussion sound is expected over a healthy adult lung?
A. Dullness
B. Tympany
C. Resonance
D. Flatness
Answer: C
Rationale: Resonance is the hollow sound of air-filled lungs.


9. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score for a fully awake patient is:
A. 3
B. 7
C. 10
D. 15
Answer: D
Rationale: 15 is the maximum GCS score (E4, V5, M6).


10. A positive Babinski sign in a 40-year-old male indicates:
A. Normal reflex
B. Upper motor neuron lesion
C. Lower motor neuron lesion
D. Peripheral neuropathy
Answer: B
Rationale: Dorsiflexion of the big toe is abnormal after age 2.


11. Assessment Q11: The Romberg test checks for:
A. Vision
B. Balance
C. N/A
D. Other
Answer: B
Rationale: Cerebellar function and vestibular balance.


12. Assessment Q12: What is an 'S3' heart sound called?
A. Ventricular gallop
B. Atrial gallop
C. N/A
D. Other
Answer: A
Rationale: S3 occurs early in diastole.

, 13. Assessment Q13: Kyphosis is an exaggerated curve of the:
A. Thoracic spine
B. Lumbar spine
C. N/A
D. Other
Answer: A
Rationale: Commonly known as hunchback.


14. Assessment Q14: A bruit indicates:
A. Clear flow
B. Turbulent flow
C. N/A
D. Other
Answer: B
Rationale: Heard over narrowed arteries.


15. Assessment Q15: The Allen test is for:
A. Radial/Ulnar flow
B. Leg flow
C. N/A
D. Other
Answer: A
Rationale: Checks collateral hand circulation.


16. Assessment Q16: What does PERRLA stand for?
A. Pupil Evaluation
B. Pupils Equal Round Reactive to Light and Accommodation
C. N/A
D. Other
Answer: B
Rationale: Standard eye assessment acronym.


17. Assessment Q17: Costovertebral angle tenderness is for:
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. N/A
D. Other
Answer: B
Rationale: Checks for pyelonephritis.


18. Assessment Q18: Weber test lateralization to the 'bad' ear means:
A. Conductive loss
B. Sensorineural loss
C. N/A
D. Other
Answer: A
Rationale: Sound travels through bone to the blocked ear.

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