RN MATERNAL NEWBORN 2024 ATI
PROCTORED EXAM 300 ACTUAL
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALE LATEST UPDATE
ALREADY GRADED A+
This comprehensive review guide contains 300 unique, multiple-choice questions
covering all core areas of the RN Maternal Newborn 2026 ATI Proctored Exam.
The content is organized into ten distinct sections: Antepartum Care, Intrapartum
Nursing, Postpartum Management, Newborn Assessment, High-Risk
Complications, Nutrition and Feeding, Pharmacology, Fetal Diagnostics, and
Postpartum Complications. Each question includes a correct answer and a detailed
rationale explaining the clinical reasoning, normal parameters, and priority nursing
actions. This resource emphasizes critical thinking, prioritization, medication
safety, and evidence-based practice to prepare students for the exam's complexity
and clinical application.
Section 1: Antepartum Nursing Care and Assessment
1. A nurse is teaching a client during her first prenatal visit. Which of the following
instructions should the nurse include?
A. "A fetal stethoscope can first detect your baby's heart rate at 22 weeks."
B. "After week 16, we can see if your baby is a boy or a girl."
C. "A Doppler device can detect your baby's heart rate at 12 weeks."
D. "You will first feel the baby move at about 8 weeks."
Answer: C
Rationale: A Doppler device can detect fetal heart tones as early as 10 to 12 weeks
of gestation. A fetal stethoscope typically detects heart tones later, around 18 to 20
weeks. Fetal movement (quickening) is usually felt by the mother between 16 and
20 weeks. Anatomic sex is typically determined via ultrasound around 18 to 20
weeks .
,2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 10 weeks of gestation and
reports severe, persistent vomiting and weight loss. Which condition should the
nurse suspect?
A. Gestational diabetes
B. Morning sickness
C. Hyperemesis gravidarum
D. Preeclampsia
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by excessive, persistent
vomiting that leads to weight loss, electrolyte imbalances, and nutritional
deficiencies. It is more severe than typical morning sickness .
3. A nurse is teaching a client about Group B Streptococcus (GBS) screening. At
what point in pregnancy is this screening typically performed?
A. 35 to 37 weeks
B. 24 to 28 weeks
C. 12 to 16 weeks
D. At the onset of labor
Answer: A
Rationale: Vaginal and rectal cultures for GBS are performed at 35 to 37 weeks of
gestation. This timing helps determine if the mother needs intrapartum antibiotic
prophylaxis to prevent transmission to the newborn .
4. A nurse is reviewing the prenatal record of a client who is at 34 weeks of
gestation. Which finding is a risk factor for placenta previa?
A. Maternal age of 20
B. Previous cesarean birth
C. Singleton pregnancy
D. Low body mass index
Answer: B
Rationale: Risk factors for placenta previa include previous cesarean birth,
multiparity, maternal age over 35, and smoking. A prior uterine scar can increase
the risk of abnormal placental implantation .
5. A nurse is evaluating a client's 1-hour glucose tolerance test (GTT). Which
result requires a follow-up 3-hour GTT?
A. 90 mg/dL
B. 110 mg/dL
C. 145 mg/dL
D. 120 mg/dL
,Answer: C
Rationale: A 1-hour GTT result of 130 to 140 mg/dL or greater is considered
positive and requires a follow-up 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test to diagnose
gestational diabetes .
6. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and has painless,
bright red vaginal bleeding. The nurse should suspect which condition?
A. Abruptio placentae
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Placenta previa
D. Hydatidiform mole
Answer: C
Rationale: Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester is a classic
sign of placenta previa. Abruptio placentae is typically associated with painful,
dark red bleeding .
7. A nurse is assessing a client at 20 weeks gestation for suspected preeclampsia.
Which finding is most concerning?
A. Blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg
B. 1+ proteinuria on dipstick
C. Epigastric pain and headache
D. Mild facial edema
Answer: C
Rationale: Epigastric pain and headache are signs of severe preeclampsia and can
indicate liver involvement and cerebral edema, which are more concerning than
mild hypertension, proteinuria, or edema .
8. A nurse is caring for a client who is Rh-negative at 28 weeks of gestation.
Which intervention is appropriate?
A. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin
B. Perform an amniocentesis
C. Check for glycosuria
D. Prepare for a cesarean section
Answer: A
Rationale: Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) is administered at 28 weeks of
gestation to all Rh-negative clients to prevent sensitization if the fetus is Rh-
positive .
9. A nurse is teaching a client about warning signs during the third trimester.
Which client statement indicates the need for further teaching?
, A. "If I have headaches and blurred vision, I should call the clinic."
B. "Swelling in my hands and face could be a sign of a serious problem."
C. "If my baby is not moving much, I should try to rest and drink cold water."
D. "Leaking fluid or bleeding from my vagina is something I need to report right
away."
Answer: C
Rationale: Decreased fetal movement is a potential sign of fetal distress or
compromise. While some recommend drinking something cold or lying on the left
side, persistent decreased fetal movement should always be evaluated. The other
statements indicate correct understanding of warning signs .
10. A nurse is providing counseling for a couple experiencing infertility issues.
Which statement by the nurse is appropriate?
A. "Even though you can't have children biologically, you can always adopt a
child."
B. "You need to take a break from these attempts to conceive."
C. "You might want to join our support group for couples who are experiencing
similar problems."
D. "Why didn't you get your immunizations when you were younger?"
Answer: C
Rationale: Offering support group information is therapeutic and acknowledges the
couple's emotional needs. The other options are dismissive, judgmental, or provide
unsolicited advice .
11. A nurse is talking with a client during her initial prenatal visit. The client
reports a history of trisomy 13 syndrome in her family and is concerned her fetus
might be at risk. Which statement should the nurse provide?
A. "If you sign an informed consent form, we can perform genetic screening to see
if your baby has this disorder."
B. "If the genetic screening shows that your baby has this disorder, I can provide
you with information about an abortion clinic."
C. "Screening for trisomy 13 syndrome and other chromosomal disorders is done
automatically for clients at increased risk."
D. "I can provide you with information about sterilization so that the disorder is
not passed to your future children."
Answer: A
Rationale: Genetic screening requires informed consent. The nurse should explain
the process and allow the client to make an informed decision .
PROCTORED EXAM 300 ACTUAL
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALE LATEST UPDATE
ALREADY GRADED A+
This comprehensive review guide contains 300 unique, multiple-choice questions
covering all core areas of the RN Maternal Newborn 2026 ATI Proctored Exam.
The content is organized into ten distinct sections: Antepartum Care, Intrapartum
Nursing, Postpartum Management, Newborn Assessment, High-Risk
Complications, Nutrition and Feeding, Pharmacology, Fetal Diagnostics, and
Postpartum Complications. Each question includes a correct answer and a detailed
rationale explaining the clinical reasoning, normal parameters, and priority nursing
actions. This resource emphasizes critical thinking, prioritization, medication
safety, and evidence-based practice to prepare students for the exam's complexity
and clinical application.
Section 1: Antepartum Nursing Care and Assessment
1. A nurse is teaching a client during her first prenatal visit. Which of the following
instructions should the nurse include?
A. "A fetal stethoscope can first detect your baby's heart rate at 22 weeks."
B. "After week 16, we can see if your baby is a boy or a girl."
C. "A Doppler device can detect your baby's heart rate at 12 weeks."
D. "You will first feel the baby move at about 8 weeks."
Answer: C
Rationale: A Doppler device can detect fetal heart tones as early as 10 to 12 weeks
of gestation. A fetal stethoscope typically detects heart tones later, around 18 to 20
weeks. Fetal movement (quickening) is usually felt by the mother between 16 and
20 weeks. Anatomic sex is typically determined via ultrasound around 18 to 20
weeks .
,2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 10 weeks of gestation and
reports severe, persistent vomiting and weight loss. Which condition should the
nurse suspect?
A. Gestational diabetes
B. Morning sickness
C. Hyperemesis gravidarum
D. Preeclampsia
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by excessive, persistent
vomiting that leads to weight loss, electrolyte imbalances, and nutritional
deficiencies. It is more severe than typical morning sickness .
3. A nurse is teaching a client about Group B Streptococcus (GBS) screening. At
what point in pregnancy is this screening typically performed?
A. 35 to 37 weeks
B. 24 to 28 weeks
C. 12 to 16 weeks
D. At the onset of labor
Answer: A
Rationale: Vaginal and rectal cultures for GBS are performed at 35 to 37 weeks of
gestation. This timing helps determine if the mother needs intrapartum antibiotic
prophylaxis to prevent transmission to the newborn .
4. A nurse is reviewing the prenatal record of a client who is at 34 weeks of
gestation. Which finding is a risk factor for placenta previa?
A. Maternal age of 20
B. Previous cesarean birth
C. Singleton pregnancy
D. Low body mass index
Answer: B
Rationale: Risk factors for placenta previa include previous cesarean birth,
multiparity, maternal age over 35, and smoking. A prior uterine scar can increase
the risk of abnormal placental implantation .
5. A nurse is evaluating a client's 1-hour glucose tolerance test (GTT). Which
result requires a follow-up 3-hour GTT?
A. 90 mg/dL
B. 110 mg/dL
C. 145 mg/dL
D. 120 mg/dL
,Answer: C
Rationale: A 1-hour GTT result of 130 to 140 mg/dL or greater is considered
positive and requires a follow-up 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test to diagnose
gestational diabetes .
6. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and has painless,
bright red vaginal bleeding. The nurse should suspect which condition?
A. Abruptio placentae
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Placenta previa
D. Hydatidiform mole
Answer: C
Rationale: Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester is a classic
sign of placenta previa. Abruptio placentae is typically associated with painful,
dark red bleeding .
7. A nurse is assessing a client at 20 weeks gestation for suspected preeclampsia.
Which finding is most concerning?
A. Blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg
B. 1+ proteinuria on dipstick
C. Epigastric pain and headache
D. Mild facial edema
Answer: C
Rationale: Epigastric pain and headache are signs of severe preeclampsia and can
indicate liver involvement and cerebral edema, which are more concerning than
mild hypertension, proteinuria, or edema .
8. A nurse is caring for a client who is Rh-negative at 28 weeks of gestation.
Which intervention is appropriate?
A. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin
B. Perform an amniocentesis
C. Check for glycosuria
D. Prepare for a cesarean section
Answer: A
Rationale: Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) is administered at 28 weeks of
gestation to all Rh-negative clients to prevent sensitization if the fetus is Rh-
positive .
9. A nurse is teaching a client about warning signs during the third trimester.
Which client statement indicates the need for further teaching?
, A. "If I have headaches and blurred vision, I should call the clinic."
B. "Swelling in my hands and face could be a sign of a serious problem."
C. "If my baby is not moving much, I should try to rest and drink cold water."
D. "Leaking fluid or bleeding from my vagina is something I need to report right
away."
Answer: C
Rationale: Decreased fetal movement is a potential sign of fetal distress or
compromise. While some recommend drinking something cold or lying on the left
side, persistent decreased fetal movement should always be evaluated. The other
statements indicate correct understanding of warning signs .
10. A nurse is providing counseling for a couple experiencing infertility issues.
Which statement by the nurse is appropriate?
A. "Even though you can't have children biologically, you can always adopt a
child."
B. "You need to take a break from these attempts to conceive."
C. "You might want to join our support group for couples who are experiencing
similar problems."
D. "Why didn't you get your immunizations when you were younger?"
Answer: C
Rationale: Offering support group information is therapeutic and acknowledges the
couple's emotional needs. The other options are dismissive, judgmental, or provide
unsolicited advice .
11. A nurse is talking with a client during her initial prenatal visit. The client
reports a history of trisomy 13 syndrome in her family and is concerned her fetus
might be at risk. Which statement should the nurse provide?
A. "If you sign an informed consent form, we can perform genetic screening to see
if your baby has this disorder."
B. "If the genetic screening shows that your baby has this disorder, I can provide
you with information about an abortion clinic."
C. "Screening for trisomy 13 syndrome and other chromosomal disorders is done
automatically for clients at increased risk."
D. "I can provide you with information about sterilization so that the disorder is
not passed to your future children."
Answer: A
Rationale: Genetic screening requires informed consent. The nurse should explain
the process and allow the client to make an informed decision .
