MOTHER BABY PRACTICE ATI / PRACTICE ATI MOTHER BABY ACTUAL
200 QUESTION AND ANSWERS LATEST 2026 RATED A GRADE.
1. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a group of female clients who are being
evaluated for infertility. Which of the following clients should the nurse anticipate
the provider will refer to a genetic counselor?
Correct Answer: A client who had rubella 3 months ago
Expert Rationale: Rubella (German measles) infection during pregnancy, particularly in
the first trimester, can cause congenital rubella syndrome in the fetus, leading to serious
birth defects including hearing impairment, congenital heart defects, and cataracts. A
client who had rubella 3 months ago and is now seeking infertility evaluation may have
experienced a recent infection that could affect future pregnancies. The provider should
refer this client to a genetic counselor to discuss the implications of the rubella infection
on future pregnancies, including the risk of vertical transmission and congenital
anomalies. Genetic counseling is also indicated for clients with a history of multiple
miscarriages, stillbirths, congenital anomalies, or known genetic disorders in the family.
The other clients who may require genetic counseling include those with advanced
maternal age (35 years or older), a family history of genetic disorders, or a history of
recurrent pregnancy loss. The nurse should recognize that rubella infection is
preventable through vaccination, and women of childbearing age should be screened
for rubella immunity before becoming pregnant. If a client is not immune, vaccination
should be offered at least 1 month before conception.
2. A nurse is caring for a couple who is being evaluated for infertility. Which of the
following statements by the nurse indicates understanding of the infertility
assessment process?
Correct Answer: The male is the easiest to assess, and the provider will usually begin
there.
Expert Rationale: Infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after 12 months of
regular unprotected intercourse (or 6 months if the female partner is over 35 years of
age). The infertility assessment process begins with a thorough history and physical
examination of both partners. However, the male partner is typically the easiest to
assess, and the provider will usually begin the evaluation with a semen analysis. A semen
analysis assesses sperm count, motility, morphology, and volume. This is a non-invasive
,test and is often the first step in the infertility workup. If the semen analysis is abnormal,
further evaluation of the male partner may include hormonal testing, genetic testing, or
a physical examination. If the semen analysis is normal, the evaluation then proceeds to
the female partner, which may include assessment of ovulation (basal body temperature
charting, ovulation predictor kits, serum progesterone levels), ovarian reserve (day 3
FSH, estradiol, AMH), and structural evaluation (hysterosalpingogram, pelvic ultrasound).
The nurse should provide education and support to the couple throughout the infertility
evaluation process and help manage the stress and emotional impact of infertility. The
nurse should also discuss lifestyle modifications that can improve fertility, including
maintaining a healthy weight, avoiding tobacco and excessive alcohol, and managing
stress.
3. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who is postpartum following a
salpingectomy due to an ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following statements
requires clarification?
Correct Answer: It is good to know that I won't have a tubal pregnancy in the future.
Expert Rationale: A salpingectomy is the surgical removal of one or both fallopian
tubes. If a client has had a salpingectomy due to an ectopic pregnancy in one fallopian
tube, the other fallopian tube remains intact. Therefore, the client can still have a future
ectopic pregnancy in the remaining fallopian tube. The client's statement, "It is good to
know that I won't have a tubal pregnancy in the future," requires clarification because it
reflects a misunderstanding of the procedure and the ongoing risk of ectopic pregnancy
in the remaining tube. The nurse should explain to the client that while the affected tube
has been removed, the remaining tube is still present and future pregnancies could
potentially be ectopic. The client should be advised to seek early prenatal care in any
future pregnancy, including early ultrasound to confirm the location of the pregnancy.
Other risk factors for ectopic pregnancy include history of pelvic inflammatory disease,
previous tubal surgery, use of intrauterine devices, and smoking. The nurse should also
discuss the client's emotional recovery following the loss of the pregnancy and provide
appropriate support and resources.
4. A nurse in an infertility clinic is providing care to clients who have been unable
to conceive for 18 months. Which of the following data should the nurse assess?
,Correct Answer: Occupation, Menstrual history, and childhood infectious diseases.
Expert Rationale: A comprehensive infertility assessment includes gathering data on
factors that may affect fertility in both partners. Occupation is relevant because
exposure to environmental toxins, radiation, or chemicals can impair fertility in both men
and women. Certain occupations, such as those involving heavy metals, pesticides, or
industrial chemicals, may affect sperm quality or ovarian function. Menstrual history is
critical for assessing ovulatory function, regularity of cycles, and the presence of
conditions such as polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) or endometriosis. The nurse
should assess the client's age at menarche, cycle length, duration of flow, and any
history of dysmenorrhea or intermenstrual bleeding. Childhood infectious diseases, such
as mumps (which can cause orchitis in males) or rubella (which can affect pregnancy
outcomes), are also important to assess. A history of sexually transmitted infections,
pelvic inflammatory disease, or abdominal or pelvic surgeries should also be obtained.
The nurse should also assess lifestyle factors, including smoking, alcohol consumption,
drug use, and exercise patterns, as these can affect fertility. This comprehensive
assessment provides the foundation for the infertility evaluation and helps identify
potential causes of infertility.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant and states that their last menstrual
period was April 1st. What is the estimated date of delivery?
Correct Answer: January 8
Expert Rationale: The estimated date of delivery (EDD) is calculated using Naegele's
rule, which is based on the first day of the client's last menstrual period (LMP). Naegele's
rule is calculated by subtracting 3 months from the first day of the LMP and adding 7
days. For a client whose LMP was April 1st: subtract 3 months = January 1st; add 7 days
= January 8th. The estimated date of delivery is January 8th of the following year. This
calculation assumes a regular 28-day menstrual cycle and conception occurring on day
14 of the cycle. If the client has irregular cycles or cycles that are longer or shorter than
28 days, the EDD may need to be adjusted based on early ultrasound dating. The EDD is
an important part of prenatal care, as it is used to schedule prenatal appointments,
assess fetal growth and development, and determine when the pregnancy is considered
term (37-42 weeks). The nurse should explain the calculation to the client and discuss
the importance of accurate dating for monitoring the pregnancy. The nurse should also
mention that only a small percentage of babies are born on their exact EDD, and the
actual date of delivery may vary by several weeks.
, 6. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is in the first trimester of
pregnancy. The client's health record includes this data: G3 T1 P0 A1 L1. How
should the nurse interpret this information?
Correct Answer: The client has been through active labor, and the client has had 2 prior
pregnancies.
Expert Rationale: The GTPAL system is used to document a client's obstetric history. G
(Gravida) = total number of pregnancies, including the current one. T (Term) = number
of pregnancies carried to term (37 weeks or greater). P (Preterm) = number of
pregnancies delivered between 20 and 36 6/7 weeks. A (Abortions) = number of
pregnancies ending before 20 weeks (spontaneous or therapeutic). L (Living) = number
of living children. For a client with G3 T1 P0 A1 L1: The client has had 3 total pregnancies
(including the current one), 1 term birth, 0 preterm births, 1 abortion (spontaneous or
therapeutic), and 1 living child. This indicates the client has been through active labor
(T1), and has had 2 prior pregnancies (the term birth and the abortion). The nurse
should use this information to assess the client's risk factors and plan appropriate care
during the current pregnancy. A client with a history of abortion may be at increased risk
for certain complications, and the nurse should provide appropriate monitoring and
support. The nurse should also validate the client's obstetric history and ensure accurate
documentation for continuity of care.
7. A nurse is reviewing the health record of a client who is pregnant. The provider
indicated the client exhibits probable signs of pregnancy. Which findings should
the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: Goodell's sign (softening of the vaginal portion of the cervix),
Ballottement (palpating floating objects in the body), Chadwick's sign (bluish
discoloration of the cervix, vagina, labia)
Expert Rationale: Probable signs of pregnancy are objective signs that can be detected
by a healthcare provider but are not definitive proof of pregnancy. These signs have a
higher probability of indicating pregnancy but can also be caused by other conditions.
Goodell's sign is the softening of the vaginal portion of the cervix that occurs around
the 6th to 8th week of pregnancy due to increased vascularity and edema. Ballottement
is the palpation of the floating fetus in the amniotic fluid, where the examiner pushes
200 QUESTION AND ANSWERS LATEST 2026 RATED A GRADE.
1. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a group of female clients who are being
evaluated for infertility. Which of the following clients should the nurse anticipate
the provider will refer to a genetic counselor?
Correct Answer: A client who had rubella 3 months ago
Expert Rationale: Rubella (German measles) infection during pregnancy, particularly in
the first trimester, can cause congenital rubella syndrome in the fetus, leading to serious
birth defects including hearing impairment, congenital heart defects, and cataracts. A
client who had rubella 3 months ago and is now seeking infertility evaluation may have
experienced a recent infection that could affect future pregnancies. The provider should
refer this client to a genetic counselor to discuss the implications of the rubella infection
on future pregnancies, including the risk of vertical transmission and congenital
anomalies. Genetic counseling is also indicated for clients with a history of multiple
miscarriages, stillbirths, congenital anomalies, or known genetic disorders in the family.
The other clients who may require genetic counseling include those with advanced
maternal age (35 years or older), a family history of genetic disorders, or a history of
recurrent pregnancy loss. The nurse should recognize that rubella infection is
preventable through vaccination, and women of childbearing age should be screened
for rubella immunity before becoming pregnant. If a client is not immune, vaccination
should be offered at least 1 month before conception.
2. A nurse is caring for a couple who is being evaluated for infertility. Which of the
following statements by the nurse indicates understanding of the infertility
assessment process?
Correct Answer: The male is the easiest to assess, and the provider will usually begin
there.
Expert Rationale: Infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after 12 months of
regular unprotected intercourse (or 6 months if the female partner is over 35 years of
age). The infertility assessment process begins with a thorough history and physical
examination of both partners. However, the male partner is typically the easiest to
assess, and the provider will usually begin the evaluation with a semen analysis. A semen
analysis assesses sperm count, motility, morphology, and volume. This is a non-invasive
,test and is often the first step in the infertility workup. If the semen analysis is abnormal,
further evaluation of the male partner may include hormonal testing, genetic testing, or
a physical examination. If the semen analysis is normal, the evaluation then proceeds to
the female partner, which may include assessment of ovulation (basal body temperature
charting, ovulation predictor kits, serum progesterone levels), ovarian reserve (day 3
FSH, estradiol, AMH), and structural evaluation (hysterosalpingogram, pelvic ultrasound).
The nurse should provide education and support to the couple throughout the infertility
evaluation process and help manage the stress and emotional impact of infertility. The
nurse should also discuss lifestyle modifications that can improve fertility, including
maintaining a healthy weight, avoiding tobacco and excessive alcohol, and managing
stress.
3. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who is postpartum following a
salpingectomy due to an ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following statements
requires clarification?
Correct Answer: It is good to know that I won't have a tubal pregnancy in the future.
Expert Rationale: A salpingectomy is the surgical removal of one or both fallopian
tubes. If a client has had a salpingectomy due to an ectopic pregnancy in one fallopian
tube, the other fallopian tube remains intact. Therefore, the client can still have a future
ectopic pregnancy in the remaining fallopian tube. The client's statement, "It is good to
know that I won't have a tubal pregnancy in the future," requires clarification because it
reflects a misunderstanding of the procedure and the ongoing risk of ectopic pregnancy
in the remaining tube. The nurse should explain to the client that while the affected tube
has been removed, the remaining tube is still present and future pregnancies could
potentially be ectopic. The client should be advised to seek early prenatal care in any
future pregnancy, including early ultrasound to confirm the location of the pregnancy.
Other risk factors for ectopic pregnancy include history of pelvic inflammatory disease,
previous tubal surgery, use of intrauterine devices, and smoking. The nurse should also
discuss the client's emotional recovery following the loss of the pregnancy and provide
appropriate support and resources.
4. A nurse in an infertility clinic is providing care to clients who have been unable
to conceive for 18 months. Which of the following data should the nurse assess?
,Correct Answer: Occupation, Menstrual history, and childhood infectious diseases.
Expert Rationale: A comprehensive infertility assessment includes gathering data on
factors that may affect fertility in both partners. Occupation is relevant because
exposure to environmental toxins, radiation, or chemicals can impair fertility in both men
and women. Certain occupations, such as those involving heavy metals, pesticides, or
industrial chemicals, may affect sperm quality or ovarian function. Menstrual history is
critical for assessing ovulatory function, regularity of cycles, and the presence of
conditions such as polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) or endometriosis. The nurse
should assess the client's age at menarche, cycle length, duration of flow, and any
history of dysmenorrhea or intermenstrual bleeding. Childhood infectious diseases, such
as mumps (which can cause orchitis in males) or rubella (which can affect pregnancy
outcomes), are also important to assess. A history of sexually transmitted infections,
pelvic inflammatory disease, or abdominal or pelvic surgeries should also be obtained.
The nurse should also assess lifestyle factors, including smoking, alcohol consumption,
drug use, and exercise patterns, as these can affect fertility. This comprehensive
assessment provides the foundation for the infertility evaluation and helps identify
potential causes of infertility.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant and states that their last menstrual
period was April 1st. What is the estimated date of delivery?
Correct Answer: January 8
Expert Rationale: The estimated date of delivery (EDD) is calculated using Naegele's
rule, which is based on the first day of the client's last menstrual period (LMP). Naegele's
rule is calculated by subtracting 3 months from the first day of the LMP and adding 7
days. For a client whose LMP was April 1st: subtract 3 months = January 1st; add 7 days
= January 8th. The estimated date of delivery is January 8th of the following year. This
calculation assumes a regular 28-day menstrual cycle and conception occurring on day
14 of the cycle. If the client has irregular cycles or cycles that are longer or shorter than
28 days, the EDD may need to be adjusted based on early ultrasound dating. The EDD is
an important part of prenatal care, as it is used to schedule prenatal appointments,
assess fetal growth and development, and determine when the pregnancy is considered
term (37-42 weeks). The nurse should explain the calculation to the client and discuss
the importance of accurate dating for monitoring the pregnancy. The nurse should also
mention that only a small percentage of babies are born on their exact EDD, and the
actual date of delivery may vary by several weeks.
, 6. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is in the first trimester of
pregnancy. The client's health record includes this data: G3 T1 P0 A1 L1. How
should the nurse interpret this information?
Correct Answer: The client has been through active labor, and the client has had 2 prior
pregnancies.
Expert Rationale: The GTPAL system is used to document a client's obstetric history. G
(Gravida) = total number of pregnancies, including the current one. T (Term) = number
of pregnancies carried to term (37 weeks or greater). P (Preterm) = number of
pregnancies delivered between 20 and 36 6/7 weeks. A (Abortions) = number of
pregnancies ending before 20 weeks (spontaneous or therapeutic). L (Living) = number
of living children. For a client with G3 T1 P0 A1 L1: The client has had 3 total pregnancies
(including the current one), 1 term birth, 0 preterm births, 1 abortion (spontaneous or
therapeutic), and 1 living child. This indicates the client has been through active labor
(T1), and has had 2 prior pregnancies (the term birth and the abortion). The nurse
should use this information to assess the client's risk factors and plan appropriate care
during the current pregnancy. A client with a history of abortion may be at increased risk
for certain complications, and the nurse should provide appropriate monitoring and
support. The nurse should also validate the client's obstetric history and ensure accurate
documentation for continuity of care.
7. A nurse is reviewing the health record of a client who is pregnant. The provider
indicated the client exhibits probable signs of pregnancy. Which findings should
the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: Goodell's sign (softening of the vaginal portion of the cervix),
Ballottement (palpating floating objects in the body), Chadwick's sign (bluish
discoloration of the cervix, vagina, labia)
Expert Rationale: Probable signs of pregnancy are objective signs that can be detected
by a healthcare provider but are not definitive proof of pregnancy. These signs have a
higher probability of indicating pregnancy but can also be caused by other conditions.
Goodell's sign is the softening of the vaginal portion of the cervix that occurs around
the 6th to 8th week of pregnancy due to increased vascularity and edema. Ballottement
is the palpation of the floating fetus in the amniotic fluid, where the examiner pushes
