AMERICAN BOARD OF INTERNAL MEDICINE · ABIM
GUARANTEED
PASS.
Treatable Cancers &
Hematology Review
80 Practice Questions with Rationales
EXAM FOCUS:
Oncology & Hematology
— Board Review
Edition 1 · August 2026
Prepare · Practice · Pass
Excellence in Internal Medicine Education
EXAM DETAILED HIGH-YIELD CONFIDENCE
FOCUSED RATIONALES CONTENT BUILDER
ABIM — Treatable Cancers Page 1
,ABIM — TREATABLE CANCERS TABLE OF CONTENTS
Table of Contents
1. Instructions for Use 3
2. Practice Questions (Q1-80) 3
ABIM — Treatable Cancers Page 2
,ABIM — TREATABLE CANCERS INSTRUCTIONS & PRACTICE QUESTIONS
How to Use This Guide
Read each stem, choose your answer, then check the rationale directly below it. The correct
option is marked, and each wrong option is explained so you understand why it's wrong — not
just that it is. This guide contains 80 questions covering ABIM board review content in
oncology and hematology.
Treatable Cancers & Hematology — Practice Questions
1 Which of the following cancers is considered highly treatable and often curable even
in advanced stages?
A Testicular cancer
B Pancreatic cancer
C Small cell lung cancer
D Glioblastoma
Why A is correct: Testicular cancer is highly treatable and often curable even in advanced
stages with chemotherapy and surgical resection.
B — Pancreatic cancer has a poor prognosis.
C — Small cell lung cancer is aggressive with poor prognosis.
D — Glioblastoma has a very poor prognosis.
, 2 A patient presents with easy bruising, heavy menstrual bleeding, and normal
prothrombin time with mildly prolonged aPTT. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A von Willebrand disease
B Hemophilia A
C Hemophilia B
D Factor XI deficiency
Why A is correct: von Willebrand disease (vWD) presents with easy bruising, heavy
menstrual bleeding, normal PT, and normal to mildly prolonged aPTT.
B — Hemophilia A presents with prolonged aPTT and hemarthroses.
C — Hemophilia B also presents with prolonged aPTT.
D — Factor XI deficiency is rare and presents with bleeding.
3 Which test is considered the gold standard for diagnosing heparin-induced
thrombocytopenia (HIT)?
A Serotonin release assay (SRA)
B ELISA for anti-PF4 antibodies
C Heparin-induced platelet aggregation (HIPA) assay
D Platelet count monitoring
Why A is correct: The serotonin release assay (SRA) is considered the gold standard for HIT
with sensitivity and specificity >95%.
B — ELISA is a screening test with lower specificity.
C — HIPA is specific but less sensitive than SRA.
D — Platelet count monitoring is not diagnostic.
GUARANTEED
PASS.
Treatable Cancers &
Hematology Review
80 Practice Questions with Rationales
EXAM FOCUS:
Oncology & Hematology
— Board Review
Edition 1 · August 2026
Prepare · Practice · Pass
Excellence in Internal Medicine Education
EXAM DETAILED HIGH-YIELD CONFIDENCE
FOCUSED RATIONALES CONTENT BUILDER
ABIM — Treatable Cancers Page 1
,ABIM — TREATABLE CANCERS TABLE OF CONTENTS
Table of Contents
1. Instructions for Use 3
2. Practice Questions (Q1-80) 3
ABIM — Treatable Cancers Page 2
,ABIM — TREATABLE CANCERS INSTRUCTIONS & PRACTICE QUESTIONS
How to Use This Guide
Read each stem, choose your answer, then check the rationale directly below it. The correct
option is marked, and each wrong option is explained so you understand why it's wrong — not
just that it is. This guide contains 80 questions covering ABIM board review content in
oncology and hematology.
Treatable Cancers & Hematology — Practice Questions
1 Which of the following cancers is considered highly treatable and often curable even
in advanced stages?
A Testicular cancer
B Pancreatic cancer
C Small cell lung cancer
D Glioblastoma
Why A is correct: Testicular cancer is highly treatable and often curable even in advanced
stages with chemotherapy and surgical resection.
B — Pancreatic cancer has a poor prognosis.
C — Small cell lung cancer is aggressive with poor prognosis.
D — Glioblastoma has a very poor prognosis.
, 2 A patient presents with easy bruising, heavy menstrual bleeding, and normal
prothrombin time with mildly prolonged aPTT. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A von Willebrand disease
B Hemophilia A
C Hemophilia B
D Factor XI deficiency
Why A is correct: von Willebrand disease (vWD) presents with easy bruising, heavy
menstrual bleeding, normal PT, and normal to mildly prolonged aPTT.
B — Hemophilia A presents with prolonged aPTT and hemarthroses.
C — Hemophilia B also presents with prolonged aPTT.
D — Factor XI deficiency is rare and presents with bleeding.
3 Which test is considered the gold standard for diagnosing heparin-induced
thrombocytopenia (HIT)?
A Serotonin release assay (SRA)
B ELISA for anti-PF4 antibodies
C Heparin-induced platelet aggregation (HIPA) assay
D Platelet count monitoring
Why A is correct: The serotonin release assay (SRA) is considered the gold standard for HIT
with sensitivity and specificity >95%.
B — ELISA is a screening test with lower specificity.
C — HIPA is specific but less sensitive than SRA.
D — Platelet count monitoring is not diagnostic.
