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OpenStax Pharmacology for Nurses Complete Test Bank 1 Correct Answers & Rationales– QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS | PLUS RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE

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OpenStax Pharmacology for Nurses Complete Test Bank 1 Correct Answers & Rationales– QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS | PLUS RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE A client who is receiving chlorpromazine HCl to control his psychotic behavior also has a prescription for benztropine. When teaching the client and/or significant others about these medications, what should the nurse explain about the use of benztropine in the treatment plan for this client? A. This medication will reduce the side effect of urinary retention. B. This drug potentiates the effect of chlorpromazine HCl. C. The benztropine is used to control extrapyramidal symptoms. OpenStax Pharmacology A+ TEST BANK 2 D. The combined effect of these drugs will modify psychotic behavior. – Correct Answer :C. The benztropine is used to control extrapyramidal symptoms. Benztropine, an anticholinergic drug, is used to control extrapyramidal symptoms associated with chlorpromazine HCl (Thorazine) use. Options A, B, and D are not accurate statements regarding the use of benztropine for clients who are treated with chlorpromazine HCl for the control of psychosis. A client being treated for an acute myocardial infarction is to receive the tissue plasminogen activator alteplase. The nurse would be correct in providing which explanation to the client regarding the purpose of this drug? A. This drug is a nitrate that promotes vasodilation of the coronary arteries. B. This drug is a clot buster that dissolves clots within a coronary artery. C. This drug is a blood thinner that will help prevent the formation of a new clot. D. This drug is a volume expander that improves myocardial perfusion by increasing output. – Correct Answer :B. This drug is a clot buster that dissolves clots within a coronary artery. t-PA, or tissue plasminogen activator, is a coronary-specific fibrinolytic agent that dissolves clots within the coronary arteries. This drug is not a calcium channel blocker or nitrate, which would promote vasodilation of the coronary arteries. This medication is not an anticoagulant, such as warfarin or heparin, which would prevent new clot formation. Volume expansion is not provided by an infusion of t-PA and would not necessarily improve myocardial perfusion caused by an increased cardiac output in a client with coronary artery disease.

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OpenStax Pharmacology

OpenStax Pharmacology for Nurses Complete
Test Bank 1 Correct Answers & Rationales–
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND
WELL DETAILED ANSWERS | PLUS
RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST
EXAM UPDATE




A client who is receiving chlorpromazine HCl to control his psychotic behavior also has a
prescription for benztropine. When teaching the client and/or significant others about these
medications, what should the nurse explain about the use of benztropine in the treatment
plan for this client?


A. This medication will reduce the side effect of urinary retention.
B. This drug potentiates the effect of chlorpromazine HCl.
C. The benztropine is used to control extrapyramidal symptoms.

A+ TEST BANK 1

, OpenStax Pharmacology
D. The combined effect of these drugs will modify psychotic behavior. –




Correct Answer :C. The benztropine is used to control extrapyramidal symptoms.


Benztropine, an anticholinergic drug, is used to control extrapyramidal symptoms associated
with chlorpromazine HCl (Thorazine) use. Options A, B, and D are not accurate statements
regarding the use of benztropine for clients who are treated with chlorpromazine HCl for the
control of psychosis.


A client being treated for an acute myocardial infarction is to receive the tissue plasminogen
activator alteplase. The nurse would be correct in providing which explanation to the client
regarding the purpose of this drug?


A. This drug is a nitrate that promotes vasodilation of the coronary arteries.
B. This drug is a clot buster that dissolves clots within a coronary artery.
C. This drug is a blood thinner that will help prevent the formation of a new clot.
D. This drug is a volume expander that improves myocardial perfusion by increasing output. –




Correct Answer :B. This drug is a clot buster that dissolves clots within a coronary artery.




t-PA, or tissue plasminogen activator, is a coronary-specific fibrinolytic agent that dissolves
clots within the coronary arteries. This drug is not a calcium channel blocker or nitrate, which
would promote vasodilation of the coronary arteries. This medication is not an anticoagulant,
such as warfarin or heparin, which would prevent new clot formation. Volume expansion is
not provided by an infusion of t-PA and would not necessarily improve myocardial perfusion
caused by an increased cardiac output in a client with coronary artery disease.


A+ TEST BANK 2

, OpenStax Pharmacology
The nurse has completed diabetic teaching for a client who has been newly diagnosed with
diabetes mellitus. Which statement by this client would indicate to the nurse that further
teaching is needed?


A. "Regular insulin can be stored at room temperature for 30 days."
B. "My legs, arms, and abdomen are all good sites to inject my insulin."
C. "I will always carry hard candies to treat hypoglycemic reactions."
D. "When I exercise, I should plan to increase my insulin dosage." –


Correct Answer :D. "When I exercise, I should plan to increase my insulin dosage."


Exercise helps facilitate the entry of glucose into the cell, so increasing insulin doses with
exercise would place the client at high risk for a hypoglycemic reaction. Options A, B, and C
reflect accurate statements about the use of insulin and management of hypoglycemic
reactions.




A lidocaine IV infusion at 4 mg/min via infusion pump is prescribed for a client having
premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). The available premixed infusion contains 2 mg/mL
of D5W. How many milliliters per hour should the nurse program the pump to deliver to this
client?


A. 20
B. 24
C. 60
D. 120 –


Correct Answer :D. 120

A+ TEST BANK 3

, OpenStax Pharmacology

Option D is the correct calculation; 120 mL/hr = 1 mL/2 mg × 4 mg/min × 60 min/hr.


A child is being treated with mebendazole for pinworms. Which type of diet should the
mother be instructed to feed the child while the child is receiving this medication?


A. Lactose-free foods
B. High-fat diet
C. Vitamin C-enriched foods
D. High-fiber diet –


Correct Answer :B. High-fat diet


A high-fat diet increases the absorption of mebendazole, which boosts the effectiveness of
the medication in eliminating the pinworms. Options A, C, and D are not related to the
administration of this medication.




During therapy with isoniazid, it is most important for the nurse to monitor which laboratory
value closely?


A. Liver enzyme levels
B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level
C. Serum electrolyte levels
D. Complete blood count (CBC) –


Correct Answer :A. Liver enzyme levels
A+ TEST BANK 4

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