AAPC CPC Final Exam Prep: 200 Real Practice
Questions, Verified Answers, & Detailed Rationales
(Latest 2026 Version) | A-Grade Study Bank
Question 1
A 45-year-old patient presents for an initial encounter with a compound fracture
of the shaft of the right tibia. Which seventh character should be assigned to the
ICD-10-CM code?
A) A
B) D
,C) S
D) B
VERIFIED ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION: According to the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for
Coding and Reporting, seventh character "B" is used for an initial encounter
for an open fracture designated as a compound or open type. Character "A"
is reserved for initial encounters of closed fractures, "D" is for subsequent
encounters, and "S" is for sequela.
Question 2
Which of the following CPT modifiers is used to report a bilateral procedure
when no specific single bilateral code exists in the manual?
A) 50
B) 51
C) 52
D) 59
VERIFIED ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: Modifier 50 is explicitly used to report bilateral procedures
performed during the same operative session. Modifier 51 is for multiple
procedures, 52 is for reduced services, and 59 indicates a distinct procedural
service.
Question 3
Under the HIPAA Privacy Rule, what is the standard that requires covered
entities to limit disclosure of protected health information (PHI) to only what is
necessary to accomplish the intended purpose?
A) Minimum Necessary Rule
B) Incidental Disclosure Rule
,C) Omnibus Provision Rule
D) Breach Notification Standard
VERIFIED ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: The "Minimum Necessary Rule" is a core HIPAA
standard stating that covered entities must make reasonable efforts to limit
PHI exposure to the absolute minimum required to complete the
administrative, billing, or clinical task.
Question 4
A patient undergoes a surgical procedure that is aborted mid-way due to a
sudden drop in blood pressure. The surgeon performs the procedure in an
ambulatory surgery center (ASC). Which modifier should be appended?
A) 53
B) 73
C) 74
D) 22
VERIFIED ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION: Modifier 73 is used for discontinued ASC facility
procedures prior to the administration of anesthesia. If anesthesia had
already been administered, modifier 74 would be appropriate. Modifier 53 is
used by physicians, not facility billing.
Question 5
An established patient visits the cardiologist for a routine check-up for
hypertension. During the visit, the physician also evaluates a new, unrelated
complaint of severe chest pain and performs an EKG. How should the
Evaluation and Management (E/M) service be coded?
A) Report the E/M code only
B) Report the E/M code with modifier 25, plus the EKG code
, C) Report the E/M code with modifier 57, plus the EKG code
D) Report the EKG code only
VERIFIED ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION: Modifier 25 is used to indicate a significant, separately
identifiable E/M service by the same physician on the same day of a
procedure or other service. Since the chest pain was a new, separate issue
requiring significant extra workup, modifier 25 is necessary.
Question 6
Which of the following suffixes means "surgical crushing"?
A) -tripsy
B) -ectasis
C) -centesis
D) -pexy
VERIFIED ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: The suffix "-tripsy" indicates crushing (e.g., lithotripsy
refers to the surgical crushing of stones). "-centesis" means surgical
puncture to remove fluid, "-pexy" means surgical fixation, and "-ectasis"
means expansion or dilation.
Question 7
A physician performs a complex repair of a 3.0 cm laceration on the patient's
forehead and an intermediate repair of a 2.0 cm laceration on the patient's
cheek. How should these laceration repairs be reported?
A) Code the complex repair first, followed by the intermediate repair with
modifier 51
B) Add the lengths together and code as a single complex repair
C) Code the intermediate repair first, followed by the complex repair
D) Code the complex repair only; the intermediate repair is bundled
Questions, Verified Answers, & Detailed Rationales
(Latest 2026 Version) | A-Grade Study Bank
Question 1
A 45-year-old patient presents for an initial encounter with a compound fracture
of the shaft of the right tibia. Which seventh character should be assigned to the
ICD-10-CM code?
A) A
B) D
,C) S
D) B
VERIFIED ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION: According to the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for
Coding and Reporting, seventh character "B" is used for an initial encounter
for an open fracture designated as a compound or open type. Character "A"
is reserved for initial encounters of closed fractures, "D" is for subsequent
encounters, and "S" is for sequela.
Question 2
Which of the following CPT modifiers is used to report a bilateral procedure
when no specific single bilateral code exists in the manual?
A) 50
B) 51
C) 52
D) 59
VERIFIED ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: Modifier 50 is explicitly used to report bilateral procedures
performed during the same operative session. Modifier 51 is for multiple
procedures, 52 is for reduced services, and 59 indicates a distinct procedural
service.
Question 3
Under the HIPAA Privacy Rule, what is the standard that requires covered
entities to limit disclosure of protected health information (PHI) to only what is
necessary to accomplish the intended purpose?
A) Minimum Necessary Rule
B) Incidental Disclosure Rule
,C) Omnibus Provision Rule
D) Breach Notification Standard
VERIFIED ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: The "Minimum Necessary Rule" is a core HIPAA
standard stating that covered entities must make reasonable efforts to limit
PHI exposure to the absolute minimum required to complete the
administrative, billing, or clinical task.
Question 4
A patient undergoes a surgical procedure that is aborted mid-way due to a
sudden drop in blood pressure. The surgeon performs the procedure in an
ambulatory surgery center (ASC). Which modifier should be appended?
A) 53
B) 73
C) 74
D) 22
VERIFIED ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION: Modifier 73 is used for discontinued ASC facility
procedures prior to the administration of anesthesia. If anesthesia had
already been administered, modifier 74 would be appropriate. Modifier 53 is
used by physicians, not facility billing.
Question 5
An established patient visits the cardiologist for a routine check-up for
hypertension. During the visit, the physician also evaluates a new, unrelated
complaint of severe chest pain and performs an EKG. How should the
Evaluation and Management (E/M) service be coded?
A) Report the E/M code only
B) Report the E/M code with modifier 25, plus the EKG code
, C) Report the E/M code with modifier 57, plus the EKG code
D) Report the EKG code only
VERIFIED ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION: Modifier 25 is used to indicate a significant, separately
identifiable E/M service by the same physician on the same day of a
procedure or other service. Since the chest pain was a new, separate issue
requiring significant extra workup, modifier 25 is necessary.
Question 6
Which of the following suffixes means "surgical crushing"?
A) -tripsy
B) -ectasis
C) -centesis
D) -pexy
VERIFIED ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: The suffix "-tripsy" indicates crushing (e.g., lithotripsy
refers to the surgical crushing of stones). "-centesis" means surgical
puncture to remove fluid, "-pexy" means surgical fixation, and "-ectasis"
means expansion or dilation.
Question 7
A physician performs a complex repair of a 3.0 cm laceration on the patient's
forehead and an intermediate repair of a 2.0 cm laceration on the patient's
cheek. How should these laceration repairs be reported?
A) Code the complex repair first, followed by the intermediate repair with
modifier 51
B) Add the lengths together and code as a single complex repair
C) Code the intermediate repair first, followed by the complex repair
D) Code the complex repair only; the intermediate repair is bundled
