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AAAE ACE Modules 1-4 | Questions with 100% Verified Answers | Latest Update 2026/2027

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AAAE ACE Modules 1-4 | Questions with 100% Verified Answers | Latest Update 2026/2027

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AAAE ACE Modules 1-4 | Questions with 100% Verified Answers
| Latest Update 2026/2027
Question: What are the two major categories of pavement?
Answer: Flexible and rigid

Question: What are some types of flexible pavement?
Answer: Grass, dirt, gravel and asphalt

Question: Why are paved surfaces necessary at airports?
Answer: To support the critical loads imposed on them; to produce a smooth, skid-resistant and safe-riding
surface

Question: What is the benefit of using a rigid pavement such as Portland Cement Concrete?
Answer: It is about half the lifetime cost of asphalt, with a service life of 30+ years versus 5-15 years for
asphalt. Concrete is more expensive up front though, so asphalt is common at low revenue airports such as
GA.

Question: What are two major elements that make pavements deteriorate?
Answer: weathering and aircraft loads

Question: For bearing strengths of 12,500lbs or greater, what method is used to express the effect of an
individual aircraft on different pavements?
Answer: Comparing ACN to PCN (Aircraft Classification Number-Pavement Classification Number) ACN less than
or equal to PCN

Question: What does the Pavement Classification Number (PCN) represent to the operator/pilot?
Answer: PCN is the maximum pavement bearing strength for unrestricted aircraft operations.

Question: What is the Load Classification Number (LCN) used to describe?
Answer: Pavement bearing strengths less than 12,500lbs

Question: What are the five major categories of pavement distress?
Answer: cracking, joint seal damage, disintegration, distortion, loss of skid resistance

Question: How far are landing distances increased on wet pavement?
Answer: By 15 percent or more

Question: Where are wind cones located?
Answer: at least one on the airport, lighted if night carrier operations occur; additional cones placed so that
every takeoff and landing runway has a cone visible to pilots

Question: When must an airport operator conduct an airfield selfinspection?
Answer: daily; when required by an unusual condition; immediately after an accident or incident

Question: How long must airfield self-inspection records be kept?
Answer: 12 consecutive calendar months

,Question: How often must operations personnel be trained on selfinspection related activities and how long
must training records be kept?
Answer: training every 12 consecutive calendar months, records maintained for 24 months

Question: How long must a record of airfield condition NOTAMs be kept?
Answer: 12 months

Question: What are four types of inspections?
Answer: Regular scheduled; continuous surveillance; periodic; special

Question: How is safety oversight defined?
Answer: those means and activities by which airport management ensures effective implementation of
safety-related standards and procedures

Question: Why does an airport need a Safety Management System?
Answer: to increase the likelihood that airport operators will detect and correct safety problems before those
problems result in an aircraft incident.

Question: In November 2005, the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) required what?
Answer: Required certificated international airports to establish an SMS

Question: What are the four pillars of the Safety Management System?
Answer: policy/objectives, risk management, assurance, and promotion

Question: What are four key elements of airport safety policy and objectives?
Answer: Safety program methods, processes, authorities and accountability

Question: What are the five phases of the safety risk management process?
Answer: Phase 1: describe the system; Phase 2: identify the hazard; Phase 3: determine the risk; Phase 4:
assess and analyze the risk; Phase 5: treat the risk

Question: What four items enhance an airport's ability to identify hazards?
Answer: operational expertise; training in hazard analysis techniques; use of a hazard analysis tool;
documenting the process

Question: What are four risk mitigation strategies?
Answer: avoidance (stop or shift the operation), assumption (accepting the risk), control (minimize or eliminate
the risk), transfer (shift risk to another area)

Question: What are four types of risks taken by airport operators?
Answer: Informed, uninformed, benefit-driven, pointless

Question: What does safety assurance include?
Answer: auditing and oversight

Question: What does safety promotion involve?
Answer: training, education, communication and continuous improvement

,Question: What are a few communication methods that may be effective for a safety program?
Answer: seminars, bulletins or notices, lessons-learned, and cross-tell

Question: What airports must comply with Part 139?
Answer: airports serving scheduled air carrier aircraft designed for more than 9 passenger seats and
unscheduled air carrier aircraft designed for at least 31 passenger seats, to include joint or shared use airports

Question: What airports are not subject to Part 139?
Answer: serving passenger carrier operations solely as an alternate airport; those operated by the U.S.;
airports in AK that only serve scheduled operations of small air carrier aircraft or times when not serving large
air carrier aircraft; heliports

Question: What are the definitions large and small air carrier aircraft?
Answer: Large: designed for at least 31 passenger seats; Small: designed for more than 9 and fewer than 31
passenger seats

Question: What is the definition of an air carrier operation?
Answer: takeoff or landing to include 15 minutes before and after

Question: What is the definition of a Class I airport?
Answer: serves scheduled large air carrier aircraft and can also serve unscheduled large air carrier aircraft and
scheduled small air carrier aircraft

Question: What is the definition of a Class II airport?
Answer: serves scheduled small air carrier aircraft and unscheduled large air carrier aircraft

Question: What is the definition of a Class III airport?
Answer: serves scheduled small air carrier aircraft

Question: What is the definition of a Class IV airport?
Answer: serves unscheduled large air carrier aircraft

Question: What distinguishes a scheduled operation of an air carrier?
Answer: advance offering of the departure location, departure time and arrival location.

Question: How long is an Airport Operating Certificate in effect?
Answer: Until the certificate holder surrenders it or it is revoked or suspended by the Administrator.

Question: What provision could allow an exemption to Part 139 rescue and firefighting equipment
requirements?
Answer: if the airport enplanes less than 1/4 of 1% (0.0025) of the total number of passengers enplaned at all
US air carrier airports

Question: Deviations from part 139 are allowed in response to an emergency, but what reporting requirements
exist in this situation?
Answer: within 14 days notify the FAA Regional Airport Division of the nature, duration and extent of the
deviation (in writing if requested)

, Question: How soon before issuing an amendment to an Airport Certification Manual must the airport notify
FAA?
Answer: 30 days

Question: 14 CFR Part 119
Answer: Air Carrier and Commercial Operations

Question: Direct Air Carrier
Answer: certificated domestic/foreign air carrier, air taxi or commuter air carrier that engages in the operations
of aircraft under a certificate, permit or exemption issued by the DOT

Question: Where can you find safety procedures?
Answer: CFRs and ACM

Question: Public Charter
Answer: one-way or round-trip flight performed by a direct air carrier and sponsored by a charter operator

Question: Scheduled Air Carrier
Answer: schedule containing departure location, departure time and arrival location

Question: Air Carrier Operations
Answer: 15 min before takeoff; 15 min after landing

Question: What does safety oversight ensure?
Answer: that an airport meets or exceeds the national industry standard

Question: What does a safety conscious organization utilize?
Answer: Internal reporting system; Set of standards; Investigation and resolution of incidents or hazards;
people trained to recognize unsafe conditions

Question: When must all discrepancies or items of noncompliance be corrected/resolved?
Answer: before commencement of any air carrier service or GA activity

Question: Are accidents due to one event?
Answer: No, Chain of Events

Question: Accident Prevention
Answer: Identify hazards and eliminate, or eliminate chain of events leading up to the hazard

Question: PRevention
Answer: Creates safeguard defenses to reduce the possibility of the chain of events from being completed

Question: What 3 things help "chain of event" links from forming?
Answer: 1. Proper design of component system
2. Safeguards put into place
3. Correct safety decisions and actions

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