WGU D236
Pathophysiology
OA V2 EXAM
Actual Questions with Verified Answers
Pass the Exam with Confidence
What You Will Get:
➢80 OA Exam Questions w/ Answers
➢ (Megan/Shay’s Study Guides)
➢ Casey's WGU NY01 Patho Note
➢ Expert Rationales included.
Take and pass the OA :)
, Preview Pages Below
Get the Complete PDF After Purchase
STUDENT PREVIEW
If you require further clarification
or in need of any study resources,
feel free to Message me.
Preview the selected pages below before purchase.
,Table of Contents
D236 OA – V2 Exam .................................................................. 2
D236 Patho - Megan/Shay’s Study Guides ..................... 42
Casey's WGU NY01 Patho Notes ....................................... 107
D236 OA – V2 Exam
1. A patient has severe itching on the face. The physical exam reveals dry
skin and small lesions. The patient has a family history of allergic rhinitis.
The physician prescribes topical anti-itch cream and instructs daily skin
care. Which condition is described?
A. Psoriasis
B. Eczema
C. Contact dermatitis
D. Urticaria
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Eczema (atopic dermatitis) is a chronic inflammatory skin condition
characterized by pruritus (itching), dry skin, and erythematous papules or
vesicles. It is strongly associated with a personal or family history of atopy
(allergic rhinitis, asthma). Treatment includes emollients, topical
corticosteroids, and trigger avoidance. Psoriasis (A) presents with well-
demarcated plaques with silvery scale. Contact dermatitis (C) requires an
identifiable irritant/allergen exposure. Urticaria (D) presents as wheals.
,2. A patient's record indicates a skin condition in which depigmentation
appears on different parts of the body that are often exposed to sunlight. A
skin biopsy reveals a lack of melanocytes. Which condition does this
describe?
A. Albinism
B. Vitiligo
C. Melasma
D. Tinea versicolor
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Vitiligo is an autoimmune disorder characterized by the destruction of
melanocytes, resulting in depigmented macules or patches commonly on sun-
exposed areas (face, hands, arms). Histology confirms the absence of
melanocytes. Albinism (A) is a congenital reduction in melanin synthesis.
Melasma (C) presents with hyperpigmentation. Tinea versicolor (D) is a fungal
infection causing hypopigmented or hyperpigmented patches.
3. Medical records show that a patient presented with a skin condition
characterized by blackheads. The patient has scarring from this ongoing
problem and was prescribed antibacterial solution. Which condition is
described?
A. Rosacea
B. Acne vulgaris
C. Seborrheic dermatitis
D. Folliculitis
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Acne vulgaris is a disorder of the pilosebaceous unit characterized by
comedones (blackheads and whiteheads), papules, pustules, and potential
scarring. Treatment includes topical antibacterial agents (benzoyl peroxide,
clindamycin), retinoids, and systemic therapies for severe cases. Rosacea (A)
presents with erythema and telangiectasias without comedones. Folliculitis (D)
involves hair follicle inflammation.
,4. A 19-year-old patient reports persistent itching and peeling dry skin
between the first and second toes. The patient also has a burning
sensation. An internal medicine practitioner prescribes antifungal ointment
and wash for the next four weeks. Which condition does this patient have?
A. Contact dermatitis
B. Tinea pedis
C. Psoriasis
D. Eczema
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Tinea pedis (athlete's foot) is a dermatophyte fungal infection commonly
affecting the interdigital spaces of the feet. It presents with pruritus, scaling,
maceration, and burning. The classic interdigital presentation between the toes,
combined with the response to antifungal therapy, confirms the diagnosis.
Contact dermatitis (A) would improve with removal of the irritant. Psoriasis (C)
and eczema (D) would not respond to antifungals.
5. A patient who is confined to a wheelchair has a lesion on his buttock.
The lesion is painful and emits a foul-smelling odor. Upon examination, the
provider notes the area of the lesion contains dead skin and subcutaneous
tissue. Which condition is described?
A. Diabetic ulcer
B. Decubitus ulcer
C. Venous stasis ulcer
D. Arterial ulcer
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
A decubitus ulcer (pressure injury) develops over bony prominences (sacrum,
buttocks, heels) due to prolonged pressure, particularly in immobilized
patients. It progresses through stages from non-blanchable erythema to full-
thickness tissue loss with necrosis. The buttock location, wheelchair
,confinement, and presence of necrotic tissue are hallmark features. Venous
stasis ulcers (C) occur at the medial malleolus.
6. A patient has tremors, bradykinesia, and abnormal gait. The patient is
taking anticholinergics; however, the symptoms are aggravated. A
neurologist treats the patient with deep brain stimulation. Which condition
is being described?
A. Multiple sclerosis
B. Parkinson disease
C. Essential tremor
D. Huntington disease
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Parkinson disease is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by the classic
triad of resting tremor, bradykinesia, and postural instability/gait
abnormalities. It results from dopaminergic neuron degeneration in the
substantia nigra. Treatment includes levodopa, dopamine agonists,
anticholinergics, and deep brain stimulation (DBS) for advanced cases. Essential
tremor (C) is an action tremor without bradykinesia.
7. What are the common causes of traumatic tympanic membrane
perforation?
A. Bacterial infection and viral invasion
B. Rapid ear pressure changes and ear infections
C. Autoimmune disorders and genetic defects
D. Chronic exposure to loud noise and aging
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Tympanic membrane perforation can result from trauma (barotrauma from
rapid pressure changes, direct injury from objects) or infection (acute otitis
media with effusion under pressure). Rapid pressure changes (diving, flying,
,D236 Patho - Megan/Shay’s Study Guides
What is the primary determinant of oncotic pressure?
Albumin
Form of osmotic pressure exerted by proteins
Oncotic Pressure
What is the difference between adult and child immunity?
Naive T Cells
Fluid and electrolyte levels are regulated by _________________, which
regulates actions such as thirst, ADH, the kidneys, and RAAS.
Osmoreceptors
What are the causes of dehydration?
#Excessive loss
#Inadequate intake
#Both
What s/sx are associated with dehydration?
#Dry mucous membranes
#Decreased skin turgor
#Decreased urine output
#Low blood pressure
#Tachycardia
#Weak heart rate
#Confusion
A patient with a viral illness and severe vomiting has an elevated CO2 level
and pH of 7.53. She is breathing slowly. What condition does she have?
, Casey's WGU NY01 Patho Notes
Bones buffer acid by
Releasing alkaline salts (calcium carbonate, calcium phosphate) into circulation.
Strain
injury to muscle or tendon - causes pain, swelling, and muscle weakness
Sprain
injury to a ligament, which connects bones to the joint
What is myopia?
Myopia is also known as nearsightedness.
Where does light focus in myopia?
Light focuses in front of the retina.
What causes myopia?
Myopia is caused by an elongated eyeball or an overly curved cornea.
What are common symptoms of myopia?
Common symptoms include blurry distant vision, squinting, and eye strain.
What are two common corrections for myopia?
Corrections for myopia include LASIK and concave lenses.
What is glaucoma?
A condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure (IOP) due to
impaired aqueous humor drainage.
, WGU D236
Pathophysiology
OA V2 EXAM
Actual Questions with Verified Answers
Pass the Exam with Confidence
What You Will Get:
➢80 OA Exam Questions w/ Answers
➢ (Megan/Shay’s Study Guides)
➢ Casey's WGU NY01 Patho Note
➢ Expert Rationales included.
Take and pass the OA :)
, Table of Contents
D236 OA – V2 Exam .................................................................. 2
D236 Patho - Megan/Shay’s Study Guides ..................... 42
Casey's WGU NY01 Patho Notes ....................................... 107
D236 OA – V2 Exam
1. A patient has severe itching on the face. The physical exam reveals dry
skin and small lesions. The patient has a family history of allergic rhinitis.
The physician prescribes topical anti-itch cream and instructs daily skin
care. Which condition is described?
A. Psoriasis
B. Eczema
C. Contact dermatitis
D. Urticaria
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Eczema (atopic dermatitis) is a chronic inflammatory skin condition
characterized by pruritus (itching), dry skin, and erythematous papules or
vesicles. It is strongly associated with a personal or family history of atopy
(allergic rhinitis, asthma). Treatment includes emollients, topical
corticosteroids, and trigger avoidance. Psoriasis (A) presents with well-
demarcated plaques with silvery scale. Contact dermatitis (C) requires an
identifiable irritant/allergen exposure. Urticaria (D) presents as wheals.
Pathophysiology
OA V2 EXAM
Actual Questions with Verified Answers
Pass the Exam with Confidence
What You Will Get:
➢80 OA Exam Questions w/ Answers
➢ (Megan/Shay’s Study Guides)
➢ Casey's WGU NY01 Patho Note
➢ Expert Rationales included.
Take and pass the OA :)
, Preview Pages Below
Get the Complete PDF After Purchase
STUDENT PREVIEW
If you require further clarification
or in need of any study resources,
feel free to Message me.
Preview the selected pages below before purchase.
,Table of Contents
D236 OA – V2 Exam .................................................................. 2
D236 Patho - Megan/Shay’s Study Guides ..................... 42
Casey's WGU NY01 Patho Notes ....................................... 107
D236 OA – V2 Exam
1. A patient has severe itching on the face. The physical exam reveals dry
skin and small lesions. The patient has a family history of allergic rhinitis.
The physician prescribes topical anti-itch cream and instructs daily skin
care. Which condition is described?
A. Psoriasis
B. Eczema
C. Contact dermatitis
D. Urticaria
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Eczema (atopic dermatitis) is a chronic inflammatory skin condition
characterized by pruritus (itching), dry skin, and erythematous papules or
vesicles. It is strongly associated with a personal or family history of atopy
(allergic rhinitis, asthma). Treatment includes emollients, topical
corticosteroids, and trigger avoidance. Psoriasis (A) presents with well-
demarcated plaques with silvery scale. Contact dermatitis (C) requires an
identifiable irritant/allergen exposure. Urticaria (D) presents as wheals.
,2. A patient's record indicates a skin condition in which depigmentation
appears on different parts of the body that are often exposed to sunlight. A
skin biopsy reveals a lack of melanocytes. Which condition does this
describe?
A. Albinism
B. Vitiligo
C. Melasma
D. Tinea versicolor
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Vitiligo is an autoimmune disorder characterized by the destruction of
melanocytes, resulting in depigmented macules or patches commonly on sun-
exposed areas (face, hands, arms). Histology confirms the absence of
melanocytes. Albinism (A) is a congenital reduction in melanin synthesis.
Melasma (C) presents with hyperpigmentation. Tinea versicolor (D) is a fungal
infection causing hypopigmented or hyperpigmented patches.
3. Medical records show that a patient presented with a skin condition
characterized by blackheads. The patient has scarring from this ongoing
problem and was prescribed antibacterial solution. Which condition is
described?
A. Rosacea
B. Acne vulgaris
C. Seborrheic dermatitis
D. Folliculitis
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Acne vulgaris is a disorder of the pilosebaceous unit characterized by
comedones (blackheads and whiteheads), papules, pustules, and potential
scarring. Treatment includes topical antibacterial agents (benzoyl peroxide,
clindamycin), retinoids, and systemic therapies for severe cases. Rosacea (A)
presents with erythema and telangiectasias without comedones. Folliculitis (D)
involves hair follicle inflammation.
,4. A 19-year-old patient reports persistent itching and peeling dry skin
between the first and second toes. The patient also has a burning
sensation. An internal medicine practitioner prescribes antifungal ointment
and wash for the next four weeks. Which condition does this patient have?
A. Contact dermatitis
B. Tinea pedis
C. Psoriasis
D. Eczema
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Tinea pedis (athlete's foot) is a dermatophyte fungal infection commonly
affecting the interdigital spaces of the feet. It presents with pruritus, scaling,
maceration, and burning. The classic interdigital presentation between the toes,
combined with the response to antifungal therapy, confirms the diagnosis.
Contact dermatitis (A) would improve with removal of the irritant. Psoriasis (C)
and eczema (D) would not respond to antifungals.
5. A patient who is confined to a wheelchair has a lesion on his buttock.
The lesion is painful and emits a foul-smelling odor. Upon examination, the
provider notes the area of the lesion contains dead skin and subcutaneous
tissue. Which condition is described?
A. Diabetic ulcer
B. Decubitus ulcer
C. Venous stasis ulcer
D. Arterial ulcer
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
A decubitus ulcer (pressure injury) develops over bony prominences (sacrum,
buttocks, heels) due to prolonged pressure, particularly in immobilized
patients. It progresses through stages from non-blanchable erythema to full-
thickness tissue loss with necrosis. The buttock location, wheelchair
,confinement, and presence of necrotic tissue are hallmark features. Venous
stasis ulcers (C) occur at the medial malleolus.
6. A patient has tremors, bradykinesia, and abnormal gait. The patient is
taking anticholinergics; however, the symptoms are aggravated. A
neurologist treats the patient with deep brain stimulation. Which condition
is being described?
A. Multiple sclerosis
B. Parkinson disease
C. Essential tremor
D. Huntington disease
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Parkinson disease is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by the classic
triad of resting tremor, bradykinesia, and postural instability/gait
abnormalities. It results from dopaminergic neuron degeneration in the
substantia nigra. Treatment includes levodopa, dopamine agonists,
anticholinergics, and deep brain stimulation (DBS) for advanced cases. Essential
tremor (C) is an action tremor without bradykinesia.
7. What are the common causes of traumatic tympanic membrane
perforation?
A. Bacterial infection and viral invasion
B. Rapid ear pressure changes and ear infections
C. Autoimmune disorders and genetic defects
D. Chronic exposure to loud noise and aging
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Tympanic membrane perforation can result from trauma (barotrauma from
rapid pressure changes, direct injury from objects) or infection (acute otitis
media with effusion under pressure). Rapid pressure changes (diving, flying,
,D236 Patho - Megan/Shay’s Study Guides
What is the primary determinant of oncotic pressure?
Albumin
Form of osmotic pressure exerted by proteins
Oncotic Pressure
What is the difference between adult and child immunity?
Naive T Cells
Fluid and electrolyte levels are regulated by _________________, which
regulates actions such as thirst, ADH, the kidneys, and RAAS.
Osmoreceptors
What are the causes of dehydration?
#Excessive loss
#Inadequate intake
#Both
What s/sx are associated with dehydration?
#Dry mucous membranes
#Decreased skin turgor
#Decreased urine output
#Low blood pressure
#Tachycardia
#Weak heart rate
#Confusion
A patient with a viral illness and severe vomiting has an elevated CO2 level
and pH of 7.53. She is breathing slowly. What condition does she have?
, Casey's WGU NY01 Patho Notes
Bones buffer acid by
Releasing alkaline salts (calcium carbonate, calcium phosphate) into circulation.
Strain
injury to muscle or tendon - causes pain, swelling, and muscle weakness
Sprain
injury to a ligament, which connects bones to the joint
What is myopia?
Myopia is also known as nearsightedness.
Where does light focus in myopia?
Light focuses in front of the retina.
What causes myopia?
Myopia is caused by an elongated eyeball or an overly curved cornea.
What are common symptoms of myopia?
Common symptoms include blurry distant vision, squinting, and eye strain.
What are two common corrections for myopia?
Corrections for myopia include LASIK and concave lenses.
What is glaucoma?
A condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure (IOP) due to
impaired aqueous humor drainage.
, WGU D236
Pathophysiology
OA V2 EXAM
Actual Questions with Verified Answers
Pass the Exam with Confidence
What You Will Get:
➢80 OA Exam Questions w/ Answers
➢ (Megan/Shay’s Study Guides)
➢ Casey's WGU NY01 Patho Note
➢ Expert Rationales included.
Take and pass the OA :)
, Table of Contents
D236 OA – V2 Exam .................................................................. 2
D236 Patho - Megan/Shay’s Study Guides ..................... 42
Casey's WGU NY01 Patho Notes ....................................... 107
D236 OA – V2 Exam
1. A patient has severe itching on the face. The physical exam reveals dry
skin and small lesions. The patient has a family history of allergic rhinitis.
The physician prescribes topical anti-itch cream and instructs daily skin
care. Which condition is described?
A. Psoriasis
B. Eczema
C. Contact dermatitis
D. Urticaria
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Eczema (atopic dermatitis) is a chronic inflammatory skin condition
characterized by pruritus (itching), dry skin, and erythematous papules or
vesicles. It is strongly associated with a personal or family history of atopy
(allergic rhinitis, asthma). Treatment includes emollients, topical
corticosteroids, and trigger avoidance. Psoriasis (A) presents with well-
demarcated plaques with silvery scale. Contact dermatitis (C) requires an
identifiable irritant/allergen exposure. Urticaria (D) presents as wheals.
