BARKLEY 3P 3 NEWEST VERSION 2026 ACTUAL
EXAM COMPLETE 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
|ALREADY GRADED A+.
The treatment of choice for pharyngeal gonococcal infections is:
A) Metronidazole, 500 mg taken orally twice per day for seven days
B) Benzathine penicillin G, 2.4 million units administered
intramuscularly once
C) Moxifloxacin, 400 mg taken orally once daily for seven days
D) Ceftriaxone, 250 mg administered intramuscularly once; 1 gram of
azithromycin taken orally once
Correct Answer: D
Rationale
Pharyngeal gonococcal infections require treatment with ceftriaxone
250 mg intramuscularly once, combined with azithromycin 1 gram orally
once. This dual therapy is recommended by the CDC to address the
increasing prevalence of antibiotic-resistant Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
Option A is incorrect because metronidazole is used for anaerobic
infections and trichomoniasis, not gonorrhea. Option B is incorrect
because benzathine penicillin G is used for syphilis, not gonorrhea.
Option C is incorrect because moxifloxacin is a fluoroquinolone, and
fluoroquinolones are no longer recommended for gonorrhea due to
resistance.
,DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application)
TOP: Sexually Transmitted Infection Treatment
MSC: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies
In which scenario would a combination of diclofenac and misoprostol
be a good choice for the patient?
A) A 6-year-old with a fever likely due to a viral syndrome
B) A 42-year-old male with bursitis
C) A 68-year-old female with rheumatoid arthritis
D) A 2-year-old female with dysmenorrhea
Correct Answer: C
Rationale
Diclofenac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used for
pain and inflammation. Misoprostol is a prostaglandin analog that
protects the gastric mucosa from NSAID-induced ulcers. The
combination is appropriate for patients at risk for gastric ulcers, such as
older adults with chronic inflammatory conditions like rheumatoid
arthritis. Option A is incorrect because diclofenac is not indicated for
viral fever in children. Option B is incorrect while bursitis may be
treated with NSAIDs, the addition of misoprostol is typically reserved
for patients at higher risk for ulceration. Option D is incorrect because
diclofenac is not recommended for children.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application)
TOP: NSAID Therapy and Gastroprotection
MSC: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies
,When screening a patient for potential suicide ideation, all of the
following are warning signs except:
A) Feelings of hopelessness
B) Increased alcohol use
C) Anorexia
D) Increased psychomotor energy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale
Increased psychomotor energy is not typically a warning sign for suicide
ideation; rather, it may be associated with mania or other conditions.
Warning signs for suicide include feelings of hopelessness (A), increased
alcohol use (B), and anorexia (C). These signs indicate emotional
distress and potential risk for self-harm.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension)
TOP: Suicide Risk Assessment
MSC: Psychosocial Integrity
Jackie is brought into the clinic by her worried mother, who noticed skin
lesions on her shoulders that weren't there the week prior. She
describes the skin lesions as dark brown and flat and says the skin is
raised less than 1 cm in length. What type of skin lesion is on Jackie's
shoulders?
A) Papules
B) Macules
C) Vesicles
D) Patches
, Correct Answer: B
Rationale
A macule is a flat, circumscribed area of skin color change that is less
than 1 cm in diameter. The description of dark brown, flat lesions less
than 1 cm matches the definition of macules. Option A is incorrect
because papules are solid, elevated lesions. Option C is incorrect
because vesicles are elevated fluid-filled lesions. Option D is incorrect
because patches are macules larger than 1 cm.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension)
TOP: Skin Lesion Assessment
MSC: Physiological Integrity/Basic Care and Comfort
Which of the following is a verbal response that focuses on the health
care provider's perspective, rather than the patient's?
A) Reflection
B) Facilitation
C) Empathy
D) Confrontation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale
Confrontation involves giving honest feedback or pointing out
discrepancies in a patient's demeanor, which focuses on the provider's
perspective rather than the patient's. This technique should be used
sparingly. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because reflection,
facilitation, and empathy all encourage the patient to express concerns
and control the direction of the conversation.
EXAM COMPLETE 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
|ALREADY GRADED A+.
The treatment of choice for pharyngeal gonococcal infections is:
A) Metronidazole, 500 mg taken orally twice per day for seven days
B) Benzathine penicillin G, 2.4 million units administered
intramuscularly once
C) Moxifloxacin, 400 mg taken orally once daily for seven days
D) Ceftriaxone, 250 mg administered intramuscularly once; 1 gram of
azithromycin taken orally once
Correct Answer: D
Rationale
Pharyngeal gonococcal infections require treatment with ceftriaxone
250 mg intramuscularly once, combined with azithromycin 1 gram orally
once. This dual therapy is recommended by the CDC to address the
increasing prevalence of antibiotic-resistant Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
Option A is incorrect because metronidazole is used for anaerobic
infections and trichomoniasis, not gonorrhea. Option B is incorrect
because benzathine penicillin G is used for syphilis, not gonorrhea.
Option C is incorrect because moxifloxacin is a fluoroquinolone, and
fluoroquinolones are no longer recommended for gonorrhea due to
resistance.
,DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application)
TOP: Sexually Transmitted Infection Treatment
MSC: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies
In which scenario would a combination of diclofenac and misoprostol
be a good choice for the patient?
A) A 6-year-old with a fever likely due to a viral syndrome
B) A 42-year-old male with bursitis
C) A 68-year-old female with rheumatoid arthritis
D) A 2-year-old female with dysmenorrhea
Correct Answer: C
Rationale
Diclofenac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used for
pain and inflammation. Misoprostol is a prostaglandin analog that
protects the gastric mucosa from NSAID-induced ulcers. The
combination is appropriate for patients at risk for gastric ulcers, such as
older adults with chronic inflammatory conditions like rheumatoid
arthritis. Option A is incorrect because diclofenac is not indicated for
viral fever in children. Option B is incorrect while bursitis may be
treated with NSAIDs, the addition of misoprostol is typically reserved
for patients at higher risk for ulceration. Option D is incorrect because
diclofenac is not recommended for children.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application)
TOP: NSAID Therapy and Gastroprotection
MSC: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies
,When screening a patient for potential suicide ideation, all of the
following are warning signs except:
A) Feelings of hopelessness
B) Increased alcohol use
C) Anorexia
D) Increased psychomotor energy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale
Increased psychomotor energy is not typically a warning sign for suicide
ideation; rather, it may be associated with mania or other conditions.
Warning signs for suicide include feelings of hopelessness (A), increased
alcohol use (B), and anorexia (C). These signs indicate emotional
distress and potential risk for self-harm.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension)
TOP: Suicide Risk Assessment
MSC: Psychosocial Integrity
Jackie is brought into the clinic by her worried mother, who noticed skin
lesions on her shoulders that weren't there the week prior. She
describes the skin lesions as dark brown and flat and says the skin is
raised less than 1 cm in length. What type of skin lesion is on Jackie's
shoulders?
A) Papules
B) Macules
C) Vesicles
D) Patches
, Correct Answer: B
Rationale
A macule is a flat, circumscribed area of skin color change that is less
than 1 cm in diameter. The description of dark brown, flat lesions less
than 1 cm matches the definition of macules. Option A is incorrect
because papules are solid, elevated lesions. Option C is incorrect
because vesicles are elevated fluid-filled lesions. Option D is incorrect
because patches are macules larger than 1 cm.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension)
TOP: Skin Lesion Assessment
MSC: Physiological Integrity/Basic Care and Comfort
Which of the following is a verbal response that focuses on the health
care provider's perspective, rather than the patient's?
A) Reflection
B) Facilitation
C) Empathy
D) Confrontation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale
Confrontation involves giving honest feedback or pointing out
discrepancies in a patient's demeanor, which focuses on the provider's
perspective rather than the patient's. This technique should be used
sparingly. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because reflection,
facilitation, and empathy all encourage the patient to express concerns
and control the direction of the conversation.
