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Exam (elaborations)

NR 607 Midterm Exam Prep – Diagnosis & Management in Psychiatric-Mental Health Practicum III 2026 UPDATE

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NR 607 Midterm Exam Prep – Diagnosis & Management in Psychiatric-Mental Health Practicum III 2026 UPDATE

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NR 607 Midterm Exam Prep – Diagnosis & Management in Ps… 2026 Update • Verified Answers




✓ VERIFIED • 2026 UPDATE • 100% ACCURATE




NR 607 Midterm Exam Prep – Diagnosis &
Management in Psychiatric-Mental Health Practicum
III 2026 UPDATE

Actual Exam Questions & Verified Answers
with Detailed Rationales



Document Type: Exam (Elaborations)
Academic Year:
Total Questions: 50 Multiple Choice
Includes: Correct Answers + Full Rationales
Status: Verified & Updated for 2026




Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 1

,NR 607 Midterm Exam Prep – Diagnosis & Management in Ps… 2026 Update • Verified Answers




Questions & Verified Answers

1. A 24-year-old female patient is being started on Clozapine (Clozaril) for treatment-resistant
schizophrenia. Which lab value is most critical to monitor according to the Risk Evaluation and
Mitigation Strategy (REMS)?
A. Liver function tests (LFTs)
B. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
C. Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC)
D. Serum Creatinine
Answer: C
Rationale: Clozapine is associated with a risk of severe neutropenia (agranulocytosis), requiring regular
monitoring of the Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC) to ensure patient safety. This is an important clinical
concept because selecting the correct answer (C) requires understanding both the pathophysiology and the
practical nursing implications.



2. When differentiating between Bipolar I and Bipolar II disorder, which of the following is a
requirement for a Bipolar II diagnosis?
A. At least one manic episode
B. A history of hospitalization for mania
C. At least one hypomanic episode and one major depressive episode
D. Psychotic features during depressive episodes
Answer: C
Rationale: Bipolar II requires at least one hypomanic episode and at least one major depressive episode. If a
full manic episode has ever occurred, the diagnosis is Bipolar I. This is an important clinical concept because
selecting the correct answer (C) requires understanding both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing
implications.



3. A patient presents with high fever, muscle rigidity (lead-pipe), altered mental status, and
autonomic instability after starting Haloperidol. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)
B. Anticholinergic Toxicity
C. Serotonin Syndrome
D. Acute Dystonic Reaction
Answer: A
Rationale: NMS is a life-threatening reaction to antipsychotics characterized by ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity,
hyperthermia, and autonomic instability. Recognizing this principle allows the nurse to prioritize care, anticipate
complications, and provide accurate patient education. Exam questions often test the ability to distinguish this
concept from closely related distractors, making a clear rationale essential for mastery.




Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 2

, NR 607 Midterm Exam Prep – Diagnosis & Management in Ps… 2026 Update • Verified Answers




4. In the treatment of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD), which neurotransmitter is primarily
targeted by benzodiazepines to provide immediate relief?
A. Serotonin
B. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
C. Dopamine
D. , which neurotransmitter is primarily targeted by benzodiazepines to provide immediate relief?
Answer: B
Rationale: Benzodiazepines act as positive allosteric modulators of GABA-A receptors, enhancing the
inhibitory effect of GABA in the central nervous system. Applying this knowledge in clinical settings supports
safe, evidence-based practice and improves patient outcomes. This is an important clinical concept because
selecting the correct answer (B) requires understanding both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing
implications.



5. Which of the following antidepressants is contraindicated in a patient with a known seizure
disorder or an eating disorder?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Bupropion
C. Sertraline
D. Venlafaxine
Answer: B
Rationale: Bupropion is known to lower the seizure threshold, particularly in patients with epilepsy or history of
bulimia/anorexia due to electrolyte imbalances. This is an important clinical concept because selecting the
correct answer (B) requires understanding both the pathophysiology and the practical nursing implications.
Recognizing this principle allows the nurse to prioritize care, anticipate complications, and provide accurate
patient education.



6. A 10-year-old child exhibits persistent irritability and frequent, severe temper outbursts that
are out of proportion to the situation. These symptoms occur at least three times a week. What
is the most appropriate DSM-5 diagnosis?
A. Oppositional Defiant Disorder
B. Conduct Disorder
C. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD)
D. D. Bipolar I Disorder
Answer: C
Rationale: DMDD is characterized by chronic, severe persistent irritability and frequent temper outbursts in
children, usually diagnosed before age 10. Recognizing this principle allows the nurse to prioritize care,
anticipate complications, and provide accurate patient education. Exam questions often test the ability to
distinguish this concept from closely related distractors, making a clear rationale essential for mastery.




Exam (Elaborations) • Actual Questions & Rationales Page 3

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