CJE READINESS II EXAMINATION: ULTIMATE COMPREHENSIVE STUDY GUIDE 300 PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES COVERING ALL TESTED CONTENT AREAS FOR EXAM SUCCESS

CJE READINESS II EXAMINATION: ULTIMATE COMPREHENSIVE STUDY GUIDE 300 PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES COVERING ALL TESTED CONTENT AREAS FOR EXAM SUCCESS Question 1 A client is experiencing anaphylactic shock. Which medication should the nurse administer first? A) Diphenhydramine B) Epinephrine C) Methylprednisolone D) Albuterol Correct Answer: B) Epinephrine Rationale: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock as it rapidly reverses bronchospasm, increases blood pressure, and reduces edema. Antihistamines and corticosteroids are adjunct therapies. ________________________________________ Question 2 A disaster triage nurse is assessing victims at the scene. A victim has a penetrating head injury with agonal respirations. Which triage category should the nurse assign? A) Green (minor) B) Yellow (delayed) C) Red (immediate) D) Black (expectant) Correct Answer: D) Black (expectant) Rationale: The expectant category (Black) is assigned to victims with unsurvivable injuries, such as penetrating head trauma with agonal respirations, as resources should be directed to those with a higher chance of survival. ________________________________________ Question 3 What is the priority nursing assessment for a client returning to the unit following a thyroidectomy? A) Blood pressure B) Respiratory status C) Pain level D) Surgical dressing Correct Answer: B) Respiratory status Rationale: Airway compromise from laryngeal edema or hematoma formation is the greatest risk following thyroidectomy. Respiratory assessment is the priority. ________________________________________ Question 4 The nurse is preparing a client for surgery. Which of the following should be verified before the client is taken to the operating room? (Select all that apply) A) Informed consent signed B) NPO status C) Allergy band present D) Vital signs stable E) All of the above Correct Answer: E) All of the above ________________________________________ Question 5 A client is receiving oxygen via a non-rebreather mask. What is the minimum flow rate needed to prevent carbon dioxide buildup? A) 2 L/min B) 4 L/min C) 6 L/min D) 10 L/min Correct Answer: D) 10 L/min Rationale: Non-rebreather masks require a minimum flow rate of 10-15 L/min to keep the reservoir bag inflated and prevent rebreathing of carbon dioxide. ________________________________________ Question 6 The emergency department receives a mass casualty alert. What is the first action of the charge nurse? A) Call in additional staff B) Begin triage protocols C) Activate the emergency management plan D) Notify hospital administration Correct Answer: C) Activate the emergency management plan Rationale: The first action in any mass casualty event is to activate the facility's emergency management plan, which coordinates resources, staff, and communication. ________________________________________ Question 7 A client with a chest tube has continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. What should the nurse do first? A) Clamp the chest tube B) Assess for an air leak C) Notify the healthcare provider D) Strip the chest tube Correct Answer: B) Assess for an air leak Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak. The nurse should first assess the tube and connections to locate the leak before notifying the provider. ________________________________________ Question 8 Which client should the charge nurse assign to an experienced registered nurse? A) Client requiring wound care B) Client with a new tracheostomy C) Client ready for discharge teaching D) Client needing ambulation assistance Correct Answer: B) Client with a new tracheostomy Rationale: A new tracheostomy client is unstable and requires assessment and intervention from an experienced RN. Wound care and discharge teaching can be delegated appropriately.