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NURS 20030 EXAM 2 QUESTIONS ANSWERED CORRECTLY LATEST UPDATE 2026

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NURS 20030 EXAM 2 QUESTIONS ANSWERED CORRECTLY LATEST UPDATE 2026 diagnostic surgery - Answers done to provide data for a diagnosis of the problem ablative surgery - Answers to remove a diseased part pallative surgery - Answers alleviate pain or disease symptoms elective surgery - Answers surgery that is recommended but can be omitted or delayed urgent surgery - Answers Needs to be done in 24-48 hours (Examples: Tonsillectomy, skin cancer/mole removal, etc.) emergency surgery - Answers surgery that must be performed immediately to save the person's life or body organ major surgery - Answers life threatening (usually inpatient) minor surgery - Answers usually not life threatening (outpatient) 4 domains integral to patient care - Answers 1.) safety 2.) physiological response 3.) behavioral response 4.) health system preoperative phase - Answers begins when the decision to have surgery is made and ends when the client is transferred to the operating table intraoperative phase - Answers Begins with the patient's entry into the operating room and ends with admittance to the postanesthesia care unite (PACU) or recovery room post operative phase - Answers begins when pt is admitted to PACU and ends w last follow up visit to the doctor Phase 1 of postoperative period - Answers providing care from anestetized state to normal awake state phase 2 of postoperative period - Answers preparing pt to go home phase 3 of postoperative period - Answers ongoing extended care at home or follow up visit ETOH - Answers alcohol use thrombocytopenia - Answers low platelet count anticoagulants vs antiplatelet meds - Answers -anitplatelet meds arent as strong as anticoagulant -both should be stopped before surgery adverse effects of aminoglycosides (antibiotic) with surgery - Answers can cause respiratory distress CBC - Answers complete blood count BMP/CMP - Answers -basic/complete metabolic panel - includes electrolytes, BUN, and CREAT hCG - Answers pregnancy test normal RBC count male - Answers 4.6-6.2 million normal RBC count female - Answers 4.2-5.4 million normal HGB level male - Answers 13-18 normal HGB level female - Answers 12-16 normal Hct level male - Answers 42%-52% normal Hct level female - Answers 35%-47% normal WBC count - Answers 4500-11,000 normal platelet count - Answers 150,000-450,000 normal Na level - Answers 135-145 normal K+ levels - Answers 3.5-5.0 normal Cl- levels - Answers 95-105 Normal Bicarbonate (HCO3) levels - Answers 22-26 normal glucose level - Answers 70-110 normal BUN level - Answers 10-20 normal creatine level - Answers 0.7-1.4 normal PT (prothrombin time) - Answers 9.5-12 seconds normal INR (internal normalized ratio) not anticoagulated - Answers 0.76-1.27 normal INR (internal normalized ratio) when anticoagulated - Answers 2-3 Normal aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) - Answers 20-39 seconds normal Antifactor Xa - Answers 0.3-0.7 subcutaneous syringe - Answers 1-3 mL subcutaneous needle - Answers 25-30 gauge

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NURS 20030 EXAM 2 QUESTIONS ANSWERED CORRECTLY LATEST UPDATE 2026

diagnostic surgery - Answers done to provide data for a diagnosis of the problem
ablative surgery - Answers to remove a diseased part
pallative surgery - Answers alleviate pain or disease symptoms
elective surgery - Answers surgery that is recommended but can be omitted or delayed
urgent surgery - Answers Needs to be done in 24-48 hours (Examples: Tonsillectomy, skin
cancer/mole removal, etc.)
emergency surgery - Answers surgery that must be performed immediately to save the person's life
or body organ
major surgery - Answers life threatening (usually inpatient)
minor surgery - Answers usually not life threatening (outpatient)
4 domains integral to patient care - Answers 1.) safety
2.) physiological response
3.) behavioral response
4.) health system
preoperative phase - Answers begins when the decision to have surgery is made and ends when the
client is transferred to the operating table
intraoperative phase - Answers Begins with the patient's entry into the operating room and ends with
admittance to the postanesthesia care unite (PACU) or recovery room
post operative phase - Answers begins when pt is admitted to PACU and ends w last follow up visit to
the doctor
Phase 1 of postoperative period - Answers providing care from anestetized state to normal awake
state
phase 2 of postoperative period - Answers preparing pt to go home
phase 3 of postoperative period - Answers ongoing extended care at home or follow up visit
ETOH - Answers alcohol use
thrombocytopenia - Answers low platelet count
anticoagulants vs antiplatelet meds - Answers -anitplatelet meds arent as strong as anticoagulant
-both should be stopped before surgery
adverse effects of aminoglycosides (antibiotic) with surgery - Answers can cause respiratory distress
CBC - Answers complete blood count
BMP/CMP - Answers -basic/complete metabolic panel
- includes electrolytes, BUN, and CREAT
hCG - Answers pregnancy test
normal RBC count male - Answers 4.6-6.2 million
normal RBC count female - Answers 4.2-5.4 million
normal HGB level male - Answers 13-18
normal HGB level female - Answers 12-16
normal Hct level male - Answers 42%-52%
normal Hct level female - Answers 35%-47%
normal WBC count - Answers 4500-11,000
normal platelet count - Answers 150,000-450,000
normal Na level - Answers 135-145
normal K+ levels - Answers 3.5-5.0
normal Cl- levels - Answers 95-105
Normal Bicarbonate (HCO3) levels - Answers 22-26
normal glucose level - Answers 70-110
normal BUN level - Answers 10-20
normal creatine level - Answers 0.7-1.4
normal PT (prothrombin time) - Answers 9.5-12 seconds
normal INR (internal normalized ratio) not anticoagulated - Answers 0.76-1.27
normal INR (internal normalized ratio) when anticoagulated - Answers 2-3
Normal aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) - Answers 20-39 seconds
normal Antifactor Xa - Answers 0.3-0.7
subcutaneous syringe - Answers 1-3 mL
subcutaneous needle - Answers 25-30 gauge

, 3/8'' -1''
rapid acting insulin generic names - Answers aspart, glulisine, lispro
rapid acting insulin onset - Answers 15-30 minutes
rapid acting insulin peak - Answers 30 min-2.5 hours
rapid acting insulin duration - Answers 3-6 hours
short acting insulin onset - Answers 30-60 minutes
short acting insulin peak - Answers 1-5 hours
short acting insulin duration - Answers 6-10 hours
intermediate acting insulin generic - Answers NPH, isophane
intermediate acting insulin onset - Answers 1-2 hours
intermediate acting insulin peak - Answers 4-12 hours
intermediate acting insulin duration - Answers 16 hours
long acting insulin generic - Answers detemir, glargine
long acting insulin onset - Answers 3-4 hours
long acting insulin peak - Answers continuous
long acting insulin duration - Answers 24 hours
IM injection syringe - Answers 3-5 mL
IM injection needle - Answers 18-25 gauge
5/8''-1.5'' length
IM injection gauge and length is determined by - Answers -weight and muscle mass
-age
-injection site
-medication viscosity
-residual effects of the medication
deltoid injection - Answers no more than 1 mL
ventrogluteal injection - Answers up to 3 mL
vastus lateralis injection - Answers up to 2 mL
types of medications administered via injection - Answers -anticoagulants
-antibiotics
-antiemetics
-antipsychotics
-immunizations
-insulins
-opioids
How are medications classified? - Answers by the way they act against diseases or disorders or by
their chemical composition or their clinical indications for the therapeutic effect
idiosyncratic effect - Answers an unusual or peculiar response to a medication. it can be over/under
reaction or an opposite effect
anaphylactic reaction - Answers causes pharyngeal edema, bronchoconstrition, and can lead to
respiratory and cardiac collapse
synergy interaction - Answers therapeutic effect is improved with second medication
antagonist interaction - Answers when one med impacts the effectiveness of another medication in a
negative way
incompatable interaction - Answers chemical incompatability with liquid medications. two liquids
may become a new substance when combined
pregnancy category A - Answers no risk to the fetus in any trimester
pregnancy category B - Answers no adverse effects demonstrated in animals; no human studies
pregnancy category C - Answers studies with animals have shown adverse reactions; no human
studies; given only after risks to the fetus have been considered
pregnancy category D - Answers definite fetal risk; given only if life threatening condition exists
pregnancy category X - Answers absolute fetal abnormality; not to be used anytime in pregnancy
onset - Answers how long it takes to produce a response
peak - Answers the time it takes for the highest effective concentration
duration - Answers the amount of time the concentration in the body is great enough to produce a
response
trough - Answers the lowest level of concentration in the blood reached before the next scheduled
dose

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