NURS 306 FINAL EXAM REVIEW WITH
300 QUESTIONS & ANSWERS |
MATERNAL-NEWBORN NURSING | WCU
2026 UPDATE | VERIFIED ANSWERS
PLUS RATIONALES | GUARANTEED
PASS!!
QUESTION 1
A nurse is providing education to a client at 8 weeks of gestation. The client asks why
she must avoid certain medications. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "The first 8 weeks are the period of organogenesis, when your baby is most
vulnerable to teratogens."
B) "The first 8 weeks are when the baby's sex is determined, which can be affected by
medications."
C) "The first 8 weeks are when the placenta is forming, so medications can affect its
development."
D) "The first 8 weeks are the period of fetal growth, and medications can cause the
baby to grow too quickly."
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The embryonic period (weeks 2 through 8) is known as organogenesis,
when all major internal and external structures are forming. This is the most critical
time for teratogenic effects, as exposure can cause major congenital anomalies. Sex
determination occurs at conception, not during this period.
,QUESTION 2
A nurse is calculating the due date for a client whose last menstrual period (LMP)
began on May 4. Using Naegele's rule, what is the estimated due date?
A) February 11
B) February 9
C) January 28
D) March 4
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Naegele's rule calculates the estimated date of delivery by subtracting 3
months from the first day of the last menstrual period and adding 7 days. For an LMP
of May 4, subtract 3 months to get February 4, then add 7 days to get February 11.
QUESTION 3
A nurse is assessing a client at 28 weeks of gestation. The client has a history of one
elective abortion at 9 weeks, a twin birth at 36 weeks, and one spontaneous abortion
at 15 weeks. What is the correct GTPAL for this client?
A) G4 T0 P1 A2 L2
B) G4 T1 P0 A2 L2
C) G3 T1 P1 A1 L2
D) G4 T0 P2 A1 L2
Correct answer: A
Rationale:
, • Gravida (G): Total number of pregnancies, including the current one = 4
• Term (T): Births at 37 weeks or more = 0
• Preterm (P): Births from 20 to 36 6/7 weeks = 1 (twin birth at 36 weeks)
• Abortions (A): Losses before 20 weeks = 2 (elective abortion + spontaneous
abortion)
• Living (L): Number of children currently alive = 2 (the twins)
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is considered a positive sign of pregnancy?
A) A positive home pregnancy test
B) Chadwick's sign
C) Fetal heart tones detected by ultrasound
D) Goodell's sign
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Positive signs of pregnancy are those that can only be explained by
pregnancy. These include fetal heart tones detected by electronic device, fetal
movement felt by an examiner, and visualization of the fetus on ultrasound. Positive
pregnancy tests and probable signs such as Goodell's and Chadwick's are not
definitive.
QUESTION 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is 38 weeks of gestation with polyhydramnios.
Which of the following best describes this condition?
A) A deficiency of amniotic fluid
B) A normal amount of amniotic fluid
, C) An excessive amount of amniotic fluid
D) An infection of the amniotic fluid
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Polyhydramnios is defined as an excessive amount of amniotic fluid,
typically greater than 2000 mL. It can be associated with maternal diabetes, multiple
gestations, and fetal gastrointestinal or neurologic anomalies. Oligohydramnios is a
deficiency of amniotic fluid.
QUESTION 6
A client's health record includes: G3 T1 P0 A1 L1. How should the nurse interpret this
information? (Select all that apply)
A) Client has delivered one newborn at term
B) Client has experienced no preterm labor
C) Client has been through active labor
D) Client has had two prior pregnancies
E) Client has one living child
Correct answer: A, D, E
Rationale:
• G3 = 3 pregnancies total
• T1 = 1 term birth
• P0 = 0 preterm births
• A1 = 1 abortion
• L1 = 1 living child
300 QUESTIONS & ANSWERS |
MATERNAL-NEWBORN NURSING | WCU
2026 UPDATE | VERIFIED ANSWERS
PLUS RATIONALES | GUARANTEED
PASS!!
QUESTION 1
A nurse is providing education to a client at 8 weeks of gestation. The client asks why
she must avoid certain medications. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "The first 8 weeks are the period of organogenesis, when your baby is most
vulnerable to teratogens."
B) "The first 8 weeks are when the baby's sex is determined, which can be affected by
medications."
C) "The first 8 weeks are when the placenta is forming, so medications can affect its
development."
D) "The first 8 weeks are the period of fetal growth, and medications can cause the
baby to grow too quickly."
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The embryonic period (weeks 2 through 8) is known as organogenesis,
when all major internal and external structures are forming. This is the most critical
time for teratogenic effects, as exposure can cause major congenital anomalies. Sex
determination occurs at conception, not during this period.
,QUESTION 2
A nurse is calculating the due date for a client whose last menstrual period (LMP)
began on May 4. Using Naegele's rule, what is the estimated due date?
A) February 11
B) February 9
C) January 28
D) March 4
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Naegele's rule calculates the estimated date of delivery by subtracting 3
months from the first day of the last menstrual period and adding 7 days. For an LMP
of May 4, subtract 3 months to get February 4, then add 7 days to get February 11.
QUESTION 3
A nurse is assessing a client at 28 weeks of gestation. The client has a history of one
elective abortion at 9 weeks, a twin birth at 36 weeks, and one spontaneous abortion
at 15 weeks. What is the correct GTPAL for this client?
A) G4 T0 P1 A2 L2
B) G4 T1 P0 A2 L2
C) G3 T1 P1 A1 L2
D) G4 T0 P2 A1 L2
Correct answer: A
Rationale:
, • Gravida (G): Total number of pregnancies, including the current one = 4
• Term (T): Births at 37 weeks or more = 0
• Preterm (P): Births from 20 to 36 6/7 weeks = 1 (twin birth at 36 weeks)
• Abortions (A): Losses before 20 weeks = 2 (elective abortion + spontaneous
abortion)
• Living (L): Number of children currently alive = 2 (the twins)
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is considered a positive sign of pregnancy?
A) A positive home pregnancy test
B) Chadwick's sign
C) Fetal heart tones detected by ultrasound
D) Goodell's sign
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Positive signs of pregnancy are those that can only be explained by
pregnancy. These include fetal heart tones detected by electronic device, fetal
movement felt by an examiner, and visualization of the fetus on ultrasound. Positive
pregnancy tests and probable signs such as Goodell's and Chadwick's are not
definitive.
QUESTION 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is 38 weeks of gestation with polyhydramnios.
Which of the following best describes this condition?
A) A deficiency of amniotic fluid
B) A normal amount of amniotic fluid
, C) An excessive amount of amniotic fluid
D) An infection of the amniotic fluid
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Polyhydramnios is defined as an excessive amount of amniotic fluid,
typically greater than 2000 mL. It can be associated with maternal diabetes, multiple
gestations, and fetal gastrointestinal or neurologic anomalies. Oligohydramnios is a
deficiency of amniotic fluid.
QUESTION 6
A client's health record includes: G3 T1 P0 A1 L1. How should the nurse interpret this
information? (Select all that apply)
A) Client has delivered one newborn at term
B) Client has experienced no preterm labor
C) Client has been through active labor
D) Client has had two prior pregnancies
E) Client has one living child
Correct answer: A, D, E
Rationale:
• G3 = 3 pregnancies total
• T1 = 1 term birth
• P0 = 0 preterm births
• A1 = 1 abortion
• L1 = 1 living child
