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Infection Prevention and Control Examination Questions and Answers with Verified Solutions.

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Infection Prevention and Control Examination Questions and Answers with Verified Solutions.

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Infection Prevention and Control Examination Questions and
Answers with Verified Solutions

Examination Title Infection Prevention and Control Examination Questions and Answers with
Verified Solutions


Specialty Coverage Standard & Transmission-Based Precautions, Disinfection & Sterilization,
Multi-Drug Resistant Organisms, Outbreak Management, & Facility
Environmental Safety


Passing Standard 75% Correct Responses


Edition Specification 2026–2027 Comprehensive Certification Master Edition (60 Assessment
Items)



Module 1: Standard Precautions & Hand Hygiene Practice (Questions 1–15)



Question 1
According to World Health Organization guidelines, when caring for a patient infected with
*Clostridioides difficile*, which hand hygiene protocol must be performed?
• A) Apply 70% alcohol-based hand rub for 15 seconds
• B) Scrub hands with chlorhexidine gluconate foam
• C) Wash hands with soap and water for at least 40 to 60 seconds
• D) Rinse hands with sterile normal saline solution
Correct Answer: C) Wash hands with soap and water for at least 40 to 60 seconds
Alcohol-based hand rubs do not kill bacterial endospores produced by C. difficile. Physical friction with soap
and running water is necessary to mechanically wash the spores off the skin.


Question 2
In healthcare settings, when is an alcohol-based hand rub preferred over soap and water for
routine hand hygiene?
• A) When hands are not visibly soiled or contaminated with proteinaceous material
• B) Immediately after caring for a patient with acute watery diarrhea
• C) Before preparing sterile intravenous medications in an ISO Class 5 hood
• D) After removing gloves contaminated with visible blood
Correct Answer: A) When hands are not visibly soiled or contaminated with proteinaceous material
Alcohol-based hand rubs are faster, more effective at reducing overall bacterial counts, and better tolerated
by skin when hands have no visible dirt or blood. Soap and water are required when visible soil is present.


Question 3
Which clinical activity represents "Moment 3" of the WHO 5 Moments for Hand Hygiene?

, • A) Before touching a patient
• B) Before a clean or aseptic procedure
• C) After body fluid exposure risk
• D) After touching patient surroundings
Correct Answer: C) After body fluid exposure risk
Moment 3 occurs immediately after any task involving potential exposure to body fluids, blood, or mucosal
secretions to protect both the healthcare worker and the care environment.


Question 4
What personal protective equipment (PPE) combination is required when performing
endotracheal suctioning on an open-airway patient under Standard Precautions?
• A) Clean gloves only
• B) N95 respirator and sterile gloves only
• C) Gloves, gown, mask, and full-face shield or eye protection
• D) Surgical mask and fluid-resistant shoe covers
Correct Answer: C) Gloves, gown, mask, and full-face shield or eye protection
Open suctioning produces splashes and aerosols containing respiratory secretions. Standard Precautions
require full facial protection, a fluid-resistant gown, and gloves for splash-generating tasks.


Question 5
What is the correct sequence for doffing (removing) personal protective equipment to minimize
self-contamination risk?
• A) Mask/respirator, gown, goggles, gloves
• B) Gloves, goggles/face shield, gown, mask/respirator
• C) Gown, gloves, mask/respirator, goggles
• D) Mask/respirator, gloves, goggles, gown
Correct Answer: B) Gloves, goggles/face shield, gown, mask/respirator
Gloves are usually the most contaminated item and should be removed first, followed by eye protection and
gown. The mask or respirator is removed last, ideally outside the patient's room for airborne isolation.


Question 6
Which engineering control is designed to prevent sharps injuries during vascular access
procedures?
• A) Puncture-resistant sharps disposal containers placed in corridors
• B) Two-handed needle recapping techniques
• C) Safety-engineered needle devices with passive auto-sheathing mechanisms
• D) Double-gloving during routine venipuncture
Correct Answer: C) Safety-engineered needle devices with passive auto-sheathing mechanisms
Safety-engineered devices built with passive shield mechanisms automatically cover the sharp immediately
after use, eliminating user error and preventing needle-stick injuries.


Question 7
When should a sharps container be sealed and replaced in a clinical patient care unit?
• A) When it is filled completely to the top brim
• B) When it reaches three-quarters (3/4) of its designated fill capacity
• C) At the end of every 12-hour shift regardless of fill level

, • D) Once a month during routine environmental safety audits
Correct Answer: B) When it reaches three-quarters (3/4) of its designated fill capacity
Allowing sharps containers to fill beyond 3/4 capacity risks items protruding from the opening, causing
accidental needle sticks during disposal.


Question 8
Which infection control measure applies to all patients receiving care in any healthcare setting,
regardless of their suspected or confirmed infection status?
• A) Standard Precautions
• B) Contact Precautions
• C) Airborne Precautions
• D) Droplet Precautions
Correct Answer: A) Standard Precautions
Standard Precautions are the foundation of infection prevention. They assume all blood, body fluids, non-
intact skin, and mucous membranes may carry infectious agents and apply universally.


Question 9
A nurse sustains an accidental percutaneous needle-stick injury from a needle used on a patient
with unknown bloodborne virus status. What immediate action should be taken first?
• A) Apply a tight arterial tourniquet above the puncture site
• B) Squeeze the puncture site forcefully to induce heavy bleeding
• C) Wash the puncture site thoroughly with soap and water
• D) Instill concentrated household bleach directly into the wound
Correct Answer: C) Wash the puncture site thoroughly with soap and water
Immediate first aid for a sharp exposure is washing the affected site gently with soap and water. Squeezing
or applying caustic chemicals can damage tissue and increase pathogen entry.


Question 10
What post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) window is recommended for maximum efficacy following
an occupational HIV exposure?
• A) Initiate PEP within 2 hours, and no later than 72 hours post-exposure
• B) Wait 7 days for source patient lab confirmation before initiating PEP
• C) Initiate PEP between 5 and 7 days after exposure
• D) PEP is only effective if initiated within 15 minutes of exposure
Correct Answer: A) Initiate PEP within 2 hours, and no later than 72 hours post-exposure
Antiretroviral post-exposure prophylaxis works best when started as quickly as possible—ideally within 2
hours. After 72 hours, its ability to prevent viral integration drops significantly.


Question 11
Which item of personal protective equipment should be put on (donned) first when preparing to
enter a patient room?
• A) Clean gloves
• B) Protective goggles
• C) Isolation gown
• D) Surgical mask
Correct Answer: C) Isolation gown

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