SCHOOL OF NURSING AND REPRODUCTIVE
HEALTH
NUR 354 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH NURSING FINAL EXAMINATION
PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS
LATEST 2026-2027 UPDATE
Instructions: Answer all sixty (60) practice questions. Select the single best option for each
multiple-choice question. Highlighted options indicate correct answers along with verified solutions
and comprehensive rationales.
1. A 28-year-old female presents for a routine gynecological examination. Which
diagnostic screening test is recommended every 3 years for cervical cancer screening in
women aged 21 to 29 with normal prior results?
A) Annual HPV co-testing alone
B) Cervical cytology (Pap smear) alone every 3 years
C) Transvaginal ultrasound every 2 years
D) Endometrial biopsy every 3 years
Rationale: For average-risk women aged 21 to 29, national guidelines recommend cervical cytology alone every
3 years to screen for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia.
2. A female patient diagnosed with Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS) discusses her
elevated risk for long-term health complications. Which malignancy is most strongly
linked to chronic unopposed estrogen exposure in PCOS?
A) Ovarian epithelial carcinoma
B) Cervical squamous cell carcinoma
C) Endometrial adenocarcinoma
D) Vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma
Rationale: Chronic anovulation in PCOS leads to persistent progesterone deficiency and unopposed estrogen
stimulation, driving endometrial hyperplasia and increasing endometrial cancer risk.
3. A 24-year-old patient presents with thick, white, "cottage cheese-like" vaginal
discharge, intense vulvar pruritus, and vaginal erythema. Microscopic examination with
10% KOH preparation reveals hyphae and pseudohyphae. What is the first-line
treatment?
A) Oral Metronidazole 500 mg twice daily for 7 days
B) Single oral dose of Fluconazole 150 mg
, C) Intramuscular Ceftriaxone 500 mg
D) Oral Doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 7 days
Rationale: Oral fluconazole is an effective single-dose oral antifungal for uncomplicated vulvovaginal candidiasis.
4. During a pelvic exam, a clinician identifies clue cells on a wet mount slide, a positive
whiff test with 10% KOH, and a thin, homogeneous greyish-white discharge with a pH of
5.2. What diagnosis is confirmed?
A) Trichomoniasis
B) Bacterial Vaginosis
C) Vulvovaginal Candidiasis
D) Chlamydia trachomatis infection
Rationale: Amsel criteria for Bacterial Vaginosis require at least 3 of 4 features: homogeneous discharge, pH >
4.5, positive amine "whiff" test, and >20% clue cells on wet mount.
5. What medication is recommended for the treatment of Bacterial Vaginosis in non-
pregnant adults?
A) Oral Metronidazole 500 mg twice daily for 7 days
B) Oral Azithromycin 1 g single dose
C) Intramuscular Benzathine Penicillin G
D) Oral Fluconazole 150 mg single dose
Rationale: Oral metronidazole effectively targets anaerobic organisms (like Gardnerella vaginalis) responsible for
Bacterial Vaginosis.
6. A patient presenting with purulent cervical discharge and cervical motion tenderness
is diagnosed with uncomplicated gonorrhea. According to current CDC guidelines, what
is the first-line treatment regimen?
A) Oral Ciprofloxacin 500 mg single dose
B) Oral Azithromycin 1 g single dose
C) Single intramuscular injection of Ceftriaxone 500 mg
D) Oral Doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 14 days
Rationale: CDC guidelines specify a single 500 mg IM dose of ceftriaxone for uncomplicated Neisseria
gonorrhoeae infection.
7. A 22-year-old patient tested positive for Chlamydia trachomatis. What is the first-line
oral treatment recommended for non-pregnant individuals?
A) Doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 7 days
B) Metronidazole 2 g orally single dose
C) Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM single dose
D) Penicillin G 2.4 million units IM
HEALTH
NUR 354 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH NURSING FINAL EXAMINATION
PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS
LATEST 2026-2027 UPDATE
Instructions: Answer all sixty (60) practice questions. Select the single best option for each
multiple-choice question. Highlighted options indicate correct answers along with verified solutions
and comprehensive rationales.
1. A 28-year-old female presents for a routine gynecological examination. Which
diagnostic screening test is recommended every 3 years for cervical cancer screening in
women aged 21 to 29 with normal prior results?
A) Annual HPV co-testing alone
B) Cervical cytology (Pap smear) alone every 3 years
C) Transvaginal ultrasound every 2 years
D) Endometrial biopsy every 3 years
Rationale: For average-risk women aged 21 to 29, national guidelines recommend cervical cytology alone every
3 years to screen for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia.
2. A female patient diagnosed with Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS) discusses her
elevated risk for long-term health complications. Which malignancy is most strongly
linked to chronic unopposed estrogen exposure in PCOS?
A) Ovarian epithelial carcinoma
B) Cervical squamous cell carcinoma
C) Endometrial adenocarcinoma
D) Vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma
Rationale: Chronic anovulation in PCOS leads to persistent progesterone deficiency and unopposed estrogen
stimulation, driving endometrial hyperplasia and increasing endometrial cancer risk.
3. A 24-year-old patient presents with thick, white, "cottage cheese-like" vaginal
discharge, intense vulvar pruritus, and vaginal erythema. Microscopic examination with
10% KOH preparation reveals hyphae and pseudohyphae. What is the first-line
treatment?
A) Oral Metronidazole 500 mg twice daily for 7 days
B) Single oral dose of Fluconazole 150 mg
, C) Intramuscular Ceftriaxone 500 mg
D) Oral Doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 7 days
Rationale: Oral fluconazole is an effective single-dose oral antifungal for uncomplicated vulvovaginal candidiasis.
4. During a pelvic exam, a clinician identifies clue cells on a wet mount slide, a positive
whiff test with 10% KOH, and a thin, homogeneous greyish-white discharge with a pH of
5.2. What diagnosis is confirmed?
A) Trichomoniasis
B) Bacterial Vaginosis
C) Vulvovaginal Candidiasis
D) Chlamydia trachomatis infection
Rationale: Amsel criteria for Bacterial Vaginosis require at least 3 of 4 features: homogeneous discharge, pH >
4.5, positive amine "whiff" test, and >20% clue cells on wet mount.
5. What medication is recommended for the treatment of Bacterial Vaginosis in non-
pregnant adults?
A) Oral Metronidazole 500 mg twice daily for 7 days
B) Oral Azithromycin 1 g single dose
C) Intramuscular Benzathine Penicillin G
D) Oral Fluconazole 150 mg single dose
Rationale: Oral metronidazole effectively targets anaerobic organisms (like Gardnerella vaginalis) responsible for
Bacterial Vaginosis.
6. A patient presenting with purulent cervical discharge and cervical motion tenderness
is diagnosed with uncomplicated gonorrhea. According to current CDC guidelines, what
is the first-line treatment regimen?
A) Oral Ciprofloxacin 500 mg single dose
B) Oral Azithromycin 1 g single dose
C) Single intramuscular injection of Ceftriaxone 500 mg
D) Oral Doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 14 days
Rationale: CDC guidelines specify a single 500 mg IM dose of ceftriaxone for uncomplicated Neisseria
gonorrhoeae infection.
7. A 22-year-old patient tested positive for Chlamydia trachomatis. What is the first-line
oral treatment recommended for non-pregnant individuals?
A) Doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 7 days
B) Metronidazole 2 g orally single dose
C) Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM single dose
D) Penicillin G 2.4 million units IM
