PMT 3600V ADVANCED PROGRAM
MANAGEMENT EXAM 2 2026
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
1. When a project’s To Complete Performance Index (TCPI) is calculated based on the
Estimate at Completion (EAC), and the result is 1.15, what does this indicate to the Program
Manager?
A. The project is currently 15% under budget and performing efficiently.
B. The project will likely finish 15% behind the scheduled completion date.
C. The project must perform at 115% efficiency for the remainder of the work to meet the
revised budget.
D. The Cost Performance Index (CPI) is currently 0.85 and cannot be improved.
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: TCPI measures the cost performance required on remaining
work to stay within a specific budget goal. A value greater than 1.0 indicates that more
efficiency is required than what has been achieved so far.
,2. In the context of the Adaptive Acquisition Framework (AAF), which pathway is specifically
designed for the rapid development and field-testing of prototypes to demonstrate new
capabilities?
A. Major Capability Acquisition
B. Middle Tier of Acquisition (MTA)
C. Software Acquisition
D. Urgent Capability Acquisition
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: The MTA pathway focuses on rapid prototyping and rapid
fielding to meet requirements within a five-year window, bypassing traditional long-term
milestones.
3. A Program Manager identifies a technical risk with a high probability of occurrence and a
critical impact. According to the Risk Management Guide for DOD Acquisition, what should be
the first step in the risk mitigation strategy?
A. Develop a risk handling plan that includes specific triggers and mitigation actions.
B. Allocate management reserve to cover the potential cost overrun.
C. Transfer the risk to the contractor through a Fixed-Price contract.
D. Immediately re-baseline the program to reflect the potential schedule slip.
Answer: A
, Conceptual Explanation: Risk management requires a formal handling plan identifying
strategies (Avoid, Transfer, Mitigate, Accept) before applying financial or schedule changes.
4. During a Technical Review, which event confirms that the ‘design-to’ baseline is
established and that the system is ready to proceed to detailed design?
A. System Requirements Review (SRR)
B. Critical Design Review (CDR)
C. Production Readiness Review (PRR)
D. Preliminary Design Review (PDR)
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: PDR establishes the allocated baseline (‘design-to’ baseline) and
ensures the preliminary design meets all requirements before moving to the ‘build-to’
phase.
5. Under the Weapon Systems Acquisition Reform Act (WSARA), what is the mandatory
requirement for programs before proceeding to Milestone B?
A. Completion of a full-rate production plan.
B. Execution of a Firm-Fixed Price contract.
C. Independent Cost Estimate (ICE) conducted by the CAPE.
D. Selection of a lead systems integrator.
Answer: C
MANAGEMENT EXAM 2 2026
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
1. When a project’s To Complete Performance Index (TCPI) is calculated based on the
Estimate at Completion (EAC), and the result is 1.15, what does this indicate to the Program
Manager?
A. The project is currently 15% under budget and performing efficiently.
B. The project will likely finish 15% behind the scheduled completion date.
C. The project must perform at 115% efficiency for the remainder of the work to meet the
revised budget.
D. The Cost Performance Index (CPI) is currently 0.85 and cannot be improved.
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: TCPI measures the cost performance required on remaining
work to stay within a specific budget goal. A value greater than 1.0 indicates that more
efficiency is required than what has been achieved so far.
,2. In the context of the Adaptive Acquisition Framework (AAF), which pathway is specifically
designed for the rapid development and field-testing of prototypes to demonstrate new
capabilities?
A. Major Capability Acquisition
B. Middle Tier of Acquisition (MTA)
C. Software Acquisition
D. Urgent Capability Acquisition
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: The MTA pathway focuses on rapid prototyping and rapid
fielding to meet requirements within a five-year window, bypassing traditional long-term
milestones.
3. A Program Manager identifies a technical risk with a high probability of occurrence and a
critical impact. According to the Risk Management Guide for DOD Acquisition, what should be
the first step in the risk mitigation strategy?
A. Develop a risk handling plan that includes specific triggers and mitigation actions.
B. Allocate management reserve to cover the potential cost overrun.
C. Transfer the risk to the contractor through a Fixed-Price contract.
D. Immediately re-baseline the program to reflect the potential schedule slip.
Answer: A
, Conceptual Explanation: Risk management requires a formal handling plan identifying
strategies (Avoid, Transfer, Mitigate, Accept) before applying financial or schedule changes.
4. During a Technical Review, which event confirms that the ‘design-to’ baseline is
established and that the system is ready to proceed to detailed design?
A. System Requirements Review (SRR)
B. Critical Design Review (CDR)
C. Production Readiness Review (PRR)
D. Preliminary Design Review (PDR)
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: PDR establishes the allocated baseline (‘design-to’ baseline) and
ensures the preliminary design meets all requirements before moving to the ‘build-to’
phase.
5. Under the Weapon Systems Acquisition Reform Act (WSARA), what is the mandatory
requirement for programs before proceeding to Milestone B?
A. Completion of a full-rate production plan.
B. Execution of a Firm-Fixed Price contract.
C. Independent Cost Estimate (ICE) conducted by the CAPE.
D. Selection of a lead systems integrator.
Answer: C
