ATI MATERNAL NEWBORN NURSING TEST BANK - COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND
DETAILED SOLUTIONS LATEST UPDATE THIS YEAR JUST RELEASED
Question 1: based on a probable diagnosis of which type of
spontaneous abortion?
A. Incomplete
B. Inevitable
C. Threatened
D. Septic
Answer:
ANS: C
Rationale: A woman with a threatened abortion presents with spotting,
mild cramps, and no cervical dilation. A woman with an incomplete
abortion would present with heavy bleeding, mild to severe cramping,
and cervical dilation. An inevitable abortion manifests with the same
symptoms as an incomplete abortion: heavy bleeding, mild to severe
cramping, and cervical dilation. A woman with a septic abortion presents
with malodorous bleeding and typically a dilated cervix. The perinatal
nurse is giving discharge instructions to a woman after suction curettage
secondary to a hydatidiform mole. The woman asks why she must take
oral contraceptives for the next 12 months. The best response from the
nurse would be: a. If you get pregnant within 1 year, the chance of a
successful pregnancy is very small. Therefore, if you desire a future
pregnancy, it would be better for you to use the most reliable method of
contraception available. b. The major risk to you after a molar pregnancy
is a type of cancer that can be diagnosed only by measuring the same
hormone that your body produces during pregnancy. If you were to get
pregnant, it would make the diagnosis of this cancer more difficult. c. If
you can avoid a pregnancy for the next year, the chance of developing a
second molar pregnancy is rare. Therefore, to improve your chance of a
successful pregnancy, it is better not to get pregnant
,Question 2: at
Answer:
ANS: B
Rationale: This is an accurate statement. b-Human chorionic
gonadotropin (hCG) levels will be drawn for 1 year to ensure that the
mole is completely gone. There is an increased chance of developing
choriocarcinoma after the development of a hydatidiform mole. The goal
is to achieve a zero hCG level. If the woman were to become pregnant, it
could obscure the presence of the potentially carcinogenic cells. Women
should be instructed to use birth control for 1 year after treatment for a
hydatidiform mole. The rationale for avoiding pregnancy for 1 year is to
ensure that carcinogenic cells are not present. Any contraceptive
method except an intrauterine device is acceptable. The most prevalent
clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae (as opposed to placenta
previa) is:
Question 3: a. Bleeding.
A. Intense abdominal pain.
B. Uterine activity.
C. Cramping.
Answer:
ANS: B
Rationale: Pain is absent with placenta previa and may be agonizing
with abruptio placentae. Bleeding may be present in varying degrees for
both placental conditions. Uterine activity and cramping may be present
with both placental conditions.
Question 4: Methotrexate is recommended as part of the treatment
plan for which obstetric complication?
, A. Complete hydatidiform mole
B. Missed abortion
C. Unruptured ectopic pregnancy
D. Abruptio placentae
Answer:
ANS: C
Rationale: Methotrexate is an effective, nonsurgical treatment option for
a hemodynamically stable woman whose ectopic pregnancy is
unruptured and less than 4 cm in diameter. Methotrexate is not indicated
or recommended as a treatment option for complete hydatidiform mole,
missed abortion, and abruptio placentae. A 26-year-old pregnant
woman, gravida 2, para 1-0-0-1 is 28 weeks pregnant when she
experiences bright
Question 5: red, painless vaginal bleeding. On her arrival at the
hospital, what would be an expected diagnostic procedure?
A. Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity
B. Ultrasound for placental location
C. Contraction stress test (CST)
D. Internal fetal monitoring
Answer:
ANS: B
Rationale: The presence of painless bleeding should always alert the
health care team to the possibility of placenta previa. This can be
confirmed through ultrasonography. Amniocentesis would not be
performed on a woman who is experiencing bleeding. In the event of an
imminent delivery, the fetus would be presumed to have immature lungs
at this gestational age, and the mother would be given corticosteroids to
aid in fetal lung maturity. A CST would not be performed at a preterm
, gestational age. Furthermore, bleeding would be a contraindication to
this test. Internal fetal monitoring would be contraindicated in the
presence of bleeding. A laboring woman with no known risk factors
suddenly experiences spontaneous rupture of membranes (ROM). The
fluid consists of bright red blood. Her contractions are consistent with her
current stage of labor. There is no change in uterine resting tone. The
fetal heart rate begins to decline rapidly after the ROM. The nurse
should suspect the possibility of: a. Placenta previa.
Question 6: b. Vasa previa.
A. Severe abruptio placentae.
B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
Answer:
ANS: B
Rationale: Vasa previa is the result of a velamentous insertion of the
umbilical cord. The umbilical vessels are not
Question 7: surrounded by Wharton jelly and have no supportive
tissue. They are at risk for laceration at any time, but laceration
occurs most frequently during ROM. The sudden appearance of
bright red blood at the time of ROM and a sudden change in the
fetal heart rate without other known risk factors should
immediately alert the nurse to the possibility of vasa previa. The
presence of placenta previa most likely would be ascertained
before labor and would be considered a risk factor for this
pregnancy. In addition, if the woman had a placenta previa, it is
unlikely that she would be allowed to pursue labor and a vaginal
birth. With the presence of severe abruptio placentae, the uterine
tonicity would typically be tetanus (i.e., a boardlike uterus). DIC is a
pathologic form of diffuse clotting that consumes large amounts of
clotting factors and causes widespread external bleeding, internal
bleeding, or both. DIC is always a secondary diagnosis, often
DETAILED SOLUTIONS LATEST UPDATE THIS YEAR JUST RELEASED
Question 1: based on a probable diagnosis of which type of
spontaneous abortion?
A. Incomplete
B. Inevitable
C. Threatened
D. Septic
Answer:
ANS: C
Rationale: A woman with a threatened abortion presents with spotting,
mild cramps, and no cervical dilation. A woman with an incomplete
abortion would present with heavy bleeding, mild to severe cramping,
and cervical dilation. An inevitable abortion manifests with the same
symptoms as an incomplete abortion: heavy bleeding, mild to severe
cramping, and cervical dilation. A woman with a septic abortion presents
with malodorous bleeding and typically a dilated cervix. The perinatal
nurse is giving discharge instructions to a woman after suction curettage
secondary to a hydatidiform mole. The woman asks why she must take
oral contraceptives for the next 12 months. The best response from the
nurse would be: a. If you get pregnant within 1 year, the chance of a
successful pregnancy is very small. Therefore, if you desire a future
pregnancy, it would be better for you to use the most reliable method of
contraception available. b. The major risk to you after a molar pregnancy
is a type of cancer that can be diagnosed only by measuring the same
hormone that your body produces during pregnancy. If you were to get
pregnant, it would make the diagnosis of this cancer more difficult. c. If
you can avoid a pregnancy for the next year, the chance of developing a
second molar pregnancy is rare. Therefore, to improve your chance of a
successful pregnancy, it is better not to get pregnant
,Question 2: at
Answer:
ANS: B
Rationale: This is an accurate statement. b-Human chorionic
gonadotropin (hCG) levels will be drawn for 1 year to ensure that the
mole is completely gone. There is an increased chance of developing
choriocarcinoma after the development of a hydatidiform mole. The goal
is to achieve a zero hCG level. If the woman were to become pregnant, it
could obscure the presence of the potentially carcinogenic cells. Women
should be instructed to use birth control for 1 year after treatment for a
hydatidiform mole. The rationale for avoiding pregnancy for 1 year is to
ensure that carcinogenic cells are not present. Any contraceptive
method except an intrauterine device is acceptable. The most prevalent
clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae (as opposed to placenta
previa) is:
Question 3: a. Bleeding.
A. Intense abdominal pain.
B. Uterine activity.
C. Cramping.
Answer:
ANS: B
Rationale: Pain is absent with placenta previa and may be agonizing
with abruptio placentae. Bleeding may be present in varying degrees for
both placental conditions. Uterine activity and cramping may be present
with both placental conditions.
Question 4: Methotrexate is recommended as part of the treatment
plan for which obstetric complication?
, A. Complete hydatidiform mole
B. Missed abortion
C. Unruptured ectopic pregnancy
D. Abruptio placentae
Answer:
ANS: C
Rationale: Methotrexate is an effective, nonsurgical treatment option for
a hemodynamically stable woman whose ectopic pregnancy is
unruptured and less than 4 cm in diameter. Methotrexate is not indicated
or recommended as a treatment option for complete hydatidiform mole,
missed abortion, and abruptio placentae. A 26-year-old pregnant
woman, gravida 2, para 1-0-0-1 is 28 weeks pregnant when she
experiences bright
Question 5: red, painless vaginal bleeding. On her arrival at the
hospital, what would be an expected diagnostic procedure?
A. Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity
B. Ultrasound for placental location
C. Contraction stress test (CST)
D. Internal fetal monitoring
Answer:
ANS: B
Rationale: The presence of painless bleeding should always alert the
health care team to the possibility of placenta previa. This can be
confirmed through ultrasonography. Amniocentesis would not be
performed on a woman who is experiencing bleeding. In the event of an
imminent delivery, the fetus would be presumed to have immature lungs
at this gestational age, and the mother would be given corticosteroids to
aid in fetal lung maturity. A CST would not be performed at a preterm
, gestational age. Furthermore, bleeding would be a contraindication to
this test. Internal fetal monitoring would be contraindicated in the
presence of bleeding. A laboring woman with no known risk factors
suddenly experiences spontaneous rupture of membranes (ROM). The
fluid consists of bright red blood. Her contractions are consistent with her
current stage of labor. There is no change in uterine resting tone. The
fetal heart rate begins to decline rapidly after the ROM. The nurse
should suspect the possibility of: a. Placenta previa.
Question 6: b. Vasa previa.
A. Severe abruptio placentae.
B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
Answer:
ANS: B
Rationale: Vasa previa is the result of a velamentous insertion of the
umbilical cord. The umbilical vessels are not
Question 7: surrounded by Wharton jelly and have no supportive
tissue. They are at risk for laceration at any time, but laceration
occurs most frequently during ROM. The sudden appearance of
bright red blood at the time of ROM and a sudden change in the
fetal heart rate without other known risk factors should
immediately alert the nurse to the possibility of vasa previa. The
presence of placenta previa most likely would be ascertained
before labor and would be considered a risk factor for this
pregnancy. In addition, if the woman had a placenta previa, it is
unlikely that she would be allowed to pursue labor and a vaginal
birth. With the presence of severe abruptio placentae, the uterine
tonicity would typically be tetanus (i.e., a boardlike uterus). DIC is a
pathologic form of diffuse clotting that consumes large amounts of
clotting factors and causes widespread external bleeding, internal
bleeding, or both. DIC is always a secondary diagnosis, often
