BIOD 122 Anatomy and Physiology II Midterm Exam Practice
Questions and Detailed Solutions Latest Update 2026/2027 |
Human Physiology, Laboratory Applications, Verified Answers -
189 Questions
This midterm examination assesses advanced understanding of human physiology, focusing on the cardiovascular,
respiratory, renal, digestive, endocrine, and reproductive systems. It integrates laboratory applications, clinical
correlations, and data interpretation to evaluate the ability to apply physiological principles to complex
scenarios. It contains 189 multiple-choice questions, each with four distractors and a fully worked rationale that
explains why the keyed answer is correct. Questions are organized into clearly labelled sections that mirror the
major content areas of the course. Targeted learning outcomes include: Analyze the interrelationships between
organ systems in maintaining homeostasis.; Apply physiological principles to interpret clinical data and
laboratory results.; Evaluate the effects of pathological conditions on normal physiological processes.;
Demonstrate comprehensive knowledge of regulatory mechanisms and feedback loops.. Every item has been
reviewed for clinical accuracy, current guidelines, and clarity so that students can study with confidence and
self-correct as they work through the bank. Use it as a high-yield review immediately before the exam, or as a
structured practice tool during the unit - the rationales double as concise teaching notes. The recommended
writing time is 3 hours, with a passing score of 90%. Aligned with This exam adheres to the rigorous standards of
top-tier US universities, including Ivy League institutions, ensuring depth, critical thinking, and clinical
relevance. standards and reflects the question style commonly seen on accredited program examinations. Students
Section 1: General (Questions 1-189)
1 A researcher is investigating the effect of a novel drug on cardiac
output. The drug increases the force of ventricular contraction but
has no effect on heart rate or preload. If the drug also causes
vasodilation of arterioles, what is the net effect on mean arterial
pressure (MAP)?
A) MAP increases due to increased stroke volume, overriding the
decrease in total peripheral resistance.
B) MAP decreases because the vasodilation reduces total peripheral
resistance more than the increase in stroke volume raises it.
C) MAP remains unchanged because the increase in stroke volume
and decrease in total peripheral resistance cancel out.
D) MAP increases because the drug increases both stroke volume
and heart rate.
Answer: C
Rationale: MAP = CO × TPR. The drug increases stroke volume (thus
CO) but also decreases TPR. The net effect on MAP depends on the
,relative magnitudes. In this scenario, the question implies that the
increases and decreases are balanced, so MAP remains unchanged.
Options A, B, D, and E incorrectly assume one effect dominates or
introduce unmentioned changes.
2 In the renal tubule, which substance is reabsorbed primarily via
transcellular transport driven by the Na+/K+-ATPase on the
basolateral membrane, and its reabsorption is coupled with the
countertransport of hydrogen ions in the proximal tubule?
A) Glucose
B) Amino acids
C) Sodium
D) Chloride
Answer: C
Rationale: Sodium reabsorption in the proximal tubule is primarily
transcellular, driven by the basolateral Na+/K+-ATPase, which
maintains a low intracellular Na+ concentration, facilitating apical
entry via various transporters, including Na+/H+ exchangers. Glucose
and amino acids are reabsorbed via secondary active transport coupled
to sodium, but their transport is not the primary driver. Chloride and
water follow passively.
3 A patient presents with metabolic acidosis. Which compensatory
mechanism would the body primarily employ to restore acid-base
balance, and how does it affect the bicarbonate buffer system?
A) Hyperventilation to increase CO2 exhalation, shifting the
equilibrium to reduce H+ concentration.
B) Hypoventilation to retain CO2, shifting the equilibrium to
increase HCO3- reabsorption.
C) Increased renal excretion of H+ and increased reabsorption of
HCO3- to raise plasma bicarbonate.
D) Increased renal excretion of HCO3- to lower plasma bicarbonate.
Answer: C
,Rationale: In metabolic acidosis, the primary compensatory response is
renal: the kidneys increase H+ excretion and enhance HCO3-
reabsorption, thereby raising plasma bicarbonate levels to buffer the
excess H+. Respiratory compensation via hyperventilation occurs
acutely but is not the primary long-term mechanism. Options A, B, D,
and E either describe respiratory compensation or inappropriate renal
responses.
4 Which of the following accurately describes the role of the hormone
atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) in blood pressure regulation?
A) ANP is released by atrial myocytes in response to decreased
blood volume and acts to increase sodium reabsorption.
B) ANP is released by ventricular myocytes in response to increased
stretch and acts to decrease sodium reabsorption.
C) ANP is released by atrial myocytes in response to increased blood
volume and acts to increase sodium and water excretion.
D) ANP is released by the kidneys in response to low blood pressure
and acts to stimulate the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.
Answer: C
Rationale: ANP is synthesized and released by atrial myocytes in
response to increased atrial stretch (e.g., hypervolemia). It promotes
natriuresis and diuresis, reducing blood volume and pressure. Options
A and D describe opposite or incorrect origins; B incorrectly attributes
release to ventricles; E describes ADH.
5 During the cardiac cycle, the second heart sound (S2) is produced
by which event?
A) Closure of the atrioventricular valves at the onset of ventricular
systole.
B) Closure of the semilunar valves at the onset of ventricular
diastole.
C) Opening of the atrioventricular valves during ventricular filling.
D) Turbulent blood flow during rapid ventricular ejection.
, Answer: B
Rationale: S2 is caused by the closure of the aortic and pulmonary
semilunar valves at the beginning of ventricular diastole. Option A
describes S1 (closure of AV valves). C, D, and E are not associated
with S2.
6 A patient has a pulmonary embolism that blocks blood flow to a
lung segment. Which ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) mismatch pattern
would result, and what is the immediate physiological consequence?
A) Low V/Q ratio; alveolar dead space increases, leading to
hypercapnia.
B) High V/Q ratio; alveolar dead space increases, leading to
hypoxemia.
C) Low V/Q ratio; physiological shunt increases, leading to
hypoxemia.
D) High V/Q ratio; physiological shunt increases, leading to
hypercapnia.
Answer: B
Rationale: Pulmonary embolism reduces perfusion to a region, creating
a high V/Q ratio (ventilation without perfusion), which is alveolar
dead space. This impairs CO2 elimination, leading to hypercapnia,
though hypoxemia can also occur due to compensatory shunting.
Option A and C describe low V/Q (shunt). D incorrectly pairs high
V/Q with shunt. E is incorrect.
7 Which of the following best explains the mechanism of action of
loop diuretics, such as furosemide, in the thick ascending limb of
the loop of Henle?
A) Inhibition of the Na+-K+-2Cl- cotransporter, reducing medullary
osmotic gradient and enhancing water excretion.
B) Inhibition of the Na+-Cl- symporter in the distal convoluted
tubule, reducing sodium reabsorption.
Questions and Detailed Solutions Latest Update 2026/2027 |
Human Physiology, Laboratory Applications, Verified Answers -
189 Questions
This midterm examination assesses advanced understanding of human physiology, focusing on the cardiovascular,
respiratory, renal, digestive, endocrine, and reproductive systems. It integrates laboratory applications, clinical
correlations, and data interpretation to evaluate the ability to apply physiological principles to complex
scenarios. It contains 189 multiple-choice questions, each with four distractors and a fully worked rationale that
explains why the keyed answer is correct. Questions are organized into clearly labelled sections that mirror the
major content areas of the course. Targeted learning outcomes include: Analyze the interrelationships between
organ systems in maintaining homeostasis.; Apply physiological principles to interpret clinical data and
laboratory results.; Evaluate the effects of pathological conditions on normal physiological processes.;
Demonstrate comprehensive knowledge of regulatory mechanisms and feedback loops.. Every item has been
reviewed for clinical accuracy, current guidelines, and clarity so that students can study with confidence and
self-correct as they work through the bank. Use it as a high-yield review immediately before the exam, or as a
structured practice tool during the unit - the rationales double as concise teaching notes. The recommended
writing time is 3 hours, with a passing score of 90%. Aligned with This exam adheres to the rigorous standards of
top-tier US universities, including Ivy League institutions, ensuring depth, critical thinking, and clinical
relevance. standards and reflects the question style commonly seen on accredited program examinations. Students
Section 1: General (Questions 1-189)
1 A researcher is investigating the effect of a novel drug on cardiac
output. The drug increases the force of ventricular contraction but
has no effect on heart rate or preload. If the drug also causes
vasodilation of arterioles, what is the net effect on mean arterial
pressure (MAP)?
A) MAP increases due to increased stroke volume, overriding the
decrease in total peripheral resistance.
B) MAP decreases because the vasodilation reduces total peripheral
resistance more than the increase in stroke volume raises it.
C) MAP remains unchanged because the increase in stroke volume
and decrease in total peripheral resistance cancel out.
D) MAP increases because the drug increases both stroke volume
and heart rate.
Answer: C
Rationale: MAP = CO × TPR. The drug increases stroke volume (thus
CO) but also decreases TPR. The net effect on MAP depends on the
,relative magnitudes. In this scenario, the question implies that the
increases and decreases are balanced, so MAP remains unchanged.
Options A, B, D, and E incorrectly assume one effect dominates or
introduce unmentioned changes.
2 In the renal tubule, which substance is reabsorbed primarily via
transcellular transport driven by the Na+/K+-ATPase on the
basolateral membrane, and its reabsorption is coupled with the
countertransport of hydrogen ions in the proximal tubule?
A) Glucose
B) Amino acids
C) Sodium
D) Chloride
Answer: C
Rationale: Sodium reabsorption in the proximal tubule is primarily
transcellular, driven by the basolateral Na+/K+-ATPase, which
maintains a low intracellular Na+ concentration, facilitating apical
entry via various transporters, including Na+/H+ exchangers. Glucose
and amino acids are reabsorbed via secondary active transport coupled
to sodium, but their transport is not the primary driver. Chloride and
water follow passively.
3 A patient presents with metabolic acidosis. Which compensatory
mechanism would the body primarily employ to restore acid-base
balance, and how does it affect the bicarbonate buffer system?
A) Hyperventilation to increase CO2 exhalation, shifting the
equilibrium to reduce H+ concentration.
B) Hypoventilation to retain CO2, shifting the equilibrium to
increase HCO3- reabsorption.
C) Increased renal excretion of H+ and increased reabsorption of
HCO3- to raise plasma bicarbonate.
D) Increased renal excretion of HCO3- to lower plasma bicarbonate.
Answer: C
,Rationale: In metabolic acidosis, the primary compensatory response is
renal: the kidneys increase H+ excretion and enhance HCO3-
reabsorption, thereby raising plasma bicarbonate levels to buffer the
excess H+. Respiratory compensation via hyperventilation occurs
acutely but is not the primary long-term mechanism. Options A, B, D,
and E either describe respiratory compensation or inappropriate renal
responses.
4 Which of the following accurately describes the role of the hormone
atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) in blood pressure regulation?
A) ANP is released by atrial myocytes in response to decreased
blood volume and acts to increase sodium reabsorption.
B) ANP is released by ventricular myocytes in response to increased
stretch and acts to decrease sodium reabsorption.
C) ANP is released by atrial myocytes in response to increased blood
volume and acts to increase sodium and water excretion.
D) ANP is released by the kidneys in response to low blood pressure
and acts to stimulate the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.
Answer: C
Rationale: ANP is synthesized and released by atrial myocytes in
response to increased atrial stretch (e.g., hypervolemia). It promotes
natriuresis and diuresis, reducing blood volume and pressure. Options
A and D describe opposite or incorrect origins; B incorrectly attributes
release to ventricles; E describes ADH.
5 During the cardiac cycle, the second heart sound (S2) is produced
by which event?
A) Closure of the atrioventricular valves at the onset of ventricular
systole.
B) Closure of the semilunar valves at the onset of ventricular
diastole.
C) Opening of the atrioventricular valves during ventricular filling.
D) Turbulent blood flow during rapid ventricular ejection.
, Answer: B
Rationale: S2 is caused by the closure of the aortic and pulmonary
semilunar valves at the beginning of ventricular diastole. Option A
describes S1 (closure of AV valves). C, D, and E are not associated
with S2.
6 A patient has a pulmonary embolism that blocks blood flow to a
lung segment. Which ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) mismatch pattern
would result, and what is the immediate physiological consequence?
A) Low V/Q ratio; alveolar dead space increases, leading to
hypercapnia.
B) High V/Q ratio; alveolar dead space increases, leading to
hypoxemia.
C) Low V/Q ratio; physiological shunt increases, leading to
hypoxemia.
D) High V/Q ratio; physiological shunt increases, leading to
hypercapnia.
Answer: B
Rationale: Pulmonary embolism reduces perfusion to a region, creating
a high V/Q ratio (ventilation without perfusion), which is alveolar
dead space. This impairs CO2 elimination, leading to hypercapnia,
though hypoxemia can also occur due to compensatory shunting.
Option A and C describe low V/Q (shunt). D incorrectly pairs high
V/Q with shunt. E is incorrect.
7 Which of the following best explains the mechanism of action of
loop diuretics, such as furosemide, in the thick ascending limb of
the loop of Henle?
A) Inhibition of the Na+-K+-2Cl- cotransporter, reducing medullary
osmotic gradient and enhancing water excretion.
B) Inhibition of the Na+-Cl- symporter in the distal convoluted
tubule, reducing sodium reabsorption.
