Gms 6530 Final Exam Questions With Correct Answers Latest Update 2026

GMS 6530 FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2026 Which of the following lists the valves in the order through which the blood flows from the vena cava through the heart? Tricuspid, pulmonary semilunar, bicuspid, aortic semilunar Mitral, pulmonary semilunar, bicuspid, aortic semilunar Aortic semilunar, pulmonary semilunar, tricuspid, bicuspid Bicuspid, aortic semilunar, tricuspid, pulmonary semilunar - Answers tricuspid, pulmonary semilunar, bicuspid, aortic semilunar Which chamber initially receives blood from the systemic circuit? Left atrium Left ventricle Right atrium Right ventricle - Answers right atrium In which septum is it normal to find openings in the adult? interatrial septum interventricular septum atrioventricular septum - Answers atrioventricular septum Which portion of the ECG corresponds to repolarization of the atria? P wave QRS complex T wave atrial repolarization is masked by ventricular depolarization - Answers atrial repolarization is masked by ventricular depolarization The cardiovascular centers are located in which area of the brain? medulla oblongata pons mesencephalon (midbrain) cerebrum - Answers medulla oblongata Which of the following is a negative inotrope? Na+ K+ Ca2+ both Na+ and K+ - Answers K+ In a healthy young adult, what happens to cardiac output when heart rate increases above 160 bpm? It increases. It decreases. It remains constant. There is no way to predict. - Answers It decreases. The force the heart must overcome to pump blood is known as ________. preload afterload cardiac output stroke volume - Answers afterload The endothelium is found in the ________. tunica interna tunica media tunica externa lumen - Answers tunica interna Closer to the heart, arteries would be expected to have a higher percentage of ________. endothelium smooth muscle fibers elastic fibers collagenous fibers - Answers elastic fibers Which of the following best describes veins? thick walled, small lumens, low pressure thin walled, large lumens, low pressure thin walled, small lumens, high pressure thick walled, large lumens, high pressure - Answers thin walled, large lumens, low pressure Venoconstriction increases which of the following? blood pressure within the vein blood flow within the vein return of blood to the heart all of the above - Answers all of the above Would stroke volume be expected to be largest in a patient with high or low blood pressure, everything else being equal? High Low - Answers Low Which statement best describes the process of arteriosclerosis? Buildup of plaques in blood vessels, restricting blood flow Stiffening of blood vessels due to loss of elastic fibers - Answers Stiffening of blood vessels due to loss of elastic fibers If you were to drink a liter of cola, the increased blood pressure due to increased blood volume would be detected by _______. Chemoreceptors Baroreceptors Baroreflexes Farva-receptors - Answers Baroreceptors Acetazolamide inhibits which enzyme? Carbonic anhydrase NHE3 Na+ transport proteins Na+/K+/Cl- cotransporter ACE - Answers Carbonic anhydrase Furosemide inhibits which enzyme? Carbonic anhydrase NHE3 Na+ transport proteins Na+/K+/2Cl-cotransporter ACE - Answers Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransporter Assuming equal diuretic effects, which drug would be more appropriate for an 80 year old woman with a history of bone fractures? Furosemide Hydrochlorothiazide - Answers Hydrochlorothiazide Many diuretics may cause hypokalemia as a side effect. Which of these drugs would be used to avoid this? Acetazolamide Furosomide Hydrochlorothiazide Amiloride Mannitol - Answers Amiloride Which mechanism best describes mannitol's mechanism of action as a diuretic? Increased Na+ reabsorption Decreased Na+ reabsorption Increased K+ reabsorption Decreased K+ reabsorption Osmosis - Answers Osmosis If the goal is to have a large effect on Na+reabsorption, which drug is most likely to be prescribed? Hydrochlorothiazide Furosemide Triamterene Spironolactone Amiloride - Answers Furosemide Where is the primary site of action of diuretics? Cardiac muscle Smooth muscle Kidneys Adrenal Gland Central nervous system - Answers Kidneys A patient is diagnosed with hypertension but there is no singular identifiable cause. Which type of hypertension does this patient likely have? Secondary hypertension Essential hypertension - Answers Essential hypertension Initial doses of hydrochlrothiazide decreases blood pressure by ____________. decreasing heart rate dilating blood vessels blocking sympathetic transmission increasing parasympathetic tone decreasing blood volume - Answers decreasing blood volume Which of the following are affected by ACE inhibitors? Check all that apply. Cardiac muscle Smooth muscle Kidneys Adrenal Gland Central nervous system - Answers Cardiac muscle Smooth muscle Kidneys Adrenal Gland Central nervous system Does diltiazem indirectly increase or decrease the activity of myosin? Increase Decrease - Answers Decrease Is spironolactone expected to increase or decrease urination? Increase Decrease - Answers Increase Which drug is only appropriate for treating hypertension in the emergency room? Sodium Nitroprusside Spironolactone Hydralazine Propranolol Aliskiren - Answers Sodium Nitroprusside Which adverse effect of Clonodine is most likely to result in increased blood pressure? Sedation Dry mouth Fluid retention Impotence - Answers Fluid retention A hypertensive patient is given a new prescription for 10 mg Lisinopril pills. What is the most likely daily dose that was instructed (how many pills per day). 1 2 3 4 5 - Answers 1 The renal pyramids are separated from each other by extensions of the renal cortex called ________. renal medulla minor calyces medullary cortices renal columns - Answers renal columns The functional unit of the kidney is called ________. the renal hilus the renal corpuscle the nephron Bowman's capsule - Answers the nephron Most absorption and secretion occurs in this part of the nephron. proximal convoluted tubule descending loop of Henle ascending loop of Henle distal convoluted tubule collecting ducts - Answers proximal convoluted tubule ________ pressure must be greater on the capillary side of the filtration membrane to achieve filtration. Osmotic Hydrostatic - Answers Hydrostatic When blood pressure increases, blood vessels supplying the kidney will ________ to mount a steady rate of filtration. contract relax - Answers contract Which of these is a vasoconstrictor? nitric oxide natriuretic hormone bradykinin angiotensin II - Answers angiotensin II Renin is released in response to ________. increased blood pressure decreased blood pressure ACE diuretics - Answers decreased blood pressure What hormone directly opposes the actions of natriuretic hormones? renin nitric oxide dopamine aldosterone - Answers aldosterone What signal causes the heart to secrete atrial natriuretic hormone? increased blood pressure decreased blood pressure increased Na+ levels decreased Na+ levels - Answers increased blood pressure Which process moves materials into the collecting duct? reabsorption secretion - Answers secretion Which layer of the bladder would be in direct contact with urine? muscularis mucosa peritoneum adventitia - Answers mucosa Kidney stones form in what structure? collecting duct loop of Henle bladder urethra renal pelvis - Answers renal pelvis Which infection would generally be considered the most advanced? pyelonephritis pyelitis cystitis - Answers pyelonephritis Does sympathetic activation increase or decrease urination? increase decrease - Answers decrease Voluntary control of urination comes from which structure? cerebral cortex pons medulla oblongata hypothalamus midbrain - Answers pons What is the primary difference between inhalation and oral therapy for asthma? Inhalation therapy generally has more side effects Inhalation therapy is generally used for longer lasting treatment Oral therapy provides quicker relief Oral therapy better targets medication to the source of the problem Inhalation therapy is used to treat acute asthma attacks - Answers Inhalation therapy is used to treat acute asthma attacks Albuterol increases bronchial diameter by increasing the production of ________. Adenylate cyclase PDE cAMP Adenosine Histamine - Answers cAMP Which medication would most likely be prescribed as a single-agent maintenance medication for asthma? Propranolol Theophylline Ipratropium Albuterol Salmeterol - Answers Theophylline Which endogenous ligand does Atrovent block? ACh Muscarine Nicotine Adrenaline Histamine - Answers ACh A patient is prescribed a loading dose of theophylline sufficient to result in 10 µg/mL plasma concentrations. Assuming a linear increase in plasma concentration, how many of these loading doses would be required to give side effects? 1 2 3 4 5 - Answers 2 The release of which molecule is inhibited by Cromolyn? ACh Muscarine Nicotine Adrenaline Histamine - Answers Histamine Which drug would be expected to reduce leukotriene levels in the blood? Singulair Zyflo Proventil Ventolin Serevent - Answers Zyflo Which of the following treatments is most effective at controlling most chronic COPD symptoms? Atrovent Flovent Albuterol Stopping smoking - Answers Stopping smoking A patient with what type of medical history would be most likely to already be on a therapy that would impact the chosen therapy for a new asthma diagnosis? Prostate cancer Gout Heart disease Glaucoma Hemorrhoids - Answers Heart disease Which of the following is located in the pinky toe? conducting division of the respiratory system respiratory division of the respiratory system - Answers respiratory division of the respiratory system Which of the following processes does atmospheric pressure play a role in? pulmonary ventilation production of pulmonary surfactant resistance surface tension - Answers pulmonary ventilation A decrease in volume leads to a(n) ________ pressure. decrease in equalization of increase in zero - Answers increase in Gas flow decreases as ________ increases. resistance pressure airway diameter friction - Answers resistance The pH of the cerebrospinal fluid is monitored by which of these brainstem centers? PRG Hypothalamic osmoreceptors Medullary baroreceptors Central chemoreceptors - Answers Central chemoreceptors Emotional states are integrated by the __________, which generates an output that creates such respiratory variations as laughing and crying. VRG PRG DRG SRG - Answers PRG People who live in cold climates (or people in Florida when it gets below about 40 degrees) often say that it's so cold outside that it takes their breath away. What system is invoking this response? central chemoreceptors peripheral chemoreceptors stretch receptors irritant receptors Caribbean jealousy receptors - Answers irritant receptors Which of the following is the largest in diameter? respiratory bronchioles main bronchi tertiary bronchi Terminal bronchioles alveoli - Answers main bronchi What type of muscle tissue controls airway diameter? skeletal muscle cardiac muscle respiratory muscle smooth muscle - Answers smooth muscle Activation of the sympathetic nervous system would have what effect on airway resistance in the bronchi? increase decrease - Answers decrease Which class of lipoproteins has the largest proportion of cholesterol? Chylomicrons VLDL IDL LDL HDL - Answers LDL Commercials for cholesterol medications often mention "good cholesterol" and "bad cholesterol." What are they referring to as "good cholesterol?" Chylomicrons VLDL IDL LDL HDL - Answers HDL Is Lipitor used to increase or decrease the LDL:HDL ratio? Increase Decrease - Answers Decrease Treatment with an NSAID generally precedes treatment with which category of drug? Statins Inhibitors of sterol absorption Fibric acid derivatives Niacin Bile acid binding agents - Answers Niacin Fenofibrate would be least likely to be used to treat which condition? Hyperlipidemia Hypercholesterolemia Hyperlipemia Mixed hyperlipidemia - Answers Hypercholesterolemia Which class of drugs has 0% bioavailability? Statins Inhibitors of sterol absorption Fibric acid derivatives Niacin Bile acid binding agents - Answers Bile acid binding agents Lovaza is most closely related to which nutritional supplement? Ginkgo biloba Fish oil St. John's wort Melatonin Echinacea - Answers Fish oil Which drug is not given orally? Lipitor Zetia Vytorin Praluent Lovaza - Answers Praluent Patients suffering from hemophilia A lack Factor VIII. Which clotting pathway is nonfunctional in these patients? Intrinsic pathway Extrinsic pathway - Answers Intrinsic pathway Heparin inhibits which clotting pathway? Intrinsic Extrinsic Both intrinsic and extrinsic - Answers Both intrinsic and extrinsic Which drug could be used to inhibit clotting of a blood sample in a test tube? Warfarin Heparin - Answers Heparin The majority of warfarin in the body is located where after administration? Liver Bound to plasma proteins Platelets Free in the plasma Kidneys - Answers Bound to plasma proteins Which drug has irreversible effects on cells? Warfarin Aspirin Heparin Altepase Amicar - Answers Aspirin Would Alteplase be expected to increase or decrease the presence of fibrin at blood clots? Increase Decrease - Answers Decrease Would Amicar be expected to increase or decrease the presence of fibrin at blood clots? Increase Decrease - Answers Increase **STANDARD LABORATORY TEST** - Measure of the INTRINSIC PATHWAY - NORMAL RANGE: 25-35 s - Answers aPTT (activated Partial Thromboplastin Time) **STANDARD LABORATORY TEST** - Measure of the EXTRINSIC PATHWAY, and COMMON PATHWAY - NORMAL RANGE: 11-15 s - Variability between laboratories - INR (International Normalized Ratio = 1.0) - Answers PT (Prothrombin Time) **STANDARD LABORATORY TEST** - Platelet-blood vessel interaction abnormality - NORMAL RANGE: 1-6 min - Answers Bleeding Time **STANDARD LABORATORY TEST** - NORMAL RANGE: 150,000 - 400,000 / microliter - Answers Platelet Count **ANTICOAGULANT** *CLINICAL USE:* - Immediate anticoagulation (e.g., MIs, pulmonary embolism, venous thrombosis, etc.) - Used for FIRST 7-10 days followed by warfarin with a 3-5 day overlap - Monitored in past by PARTIAL THROMBOPLASTIN TIME (PTT) *CLINICAL CHALLENGES:* - INCREASED BLEEDING RISK - Can cause TRANSIENT THROMBOCYTOPENIA (~25% PTs) - Can cause HIT in ~1-4% PTs ANTIDOTE: Protamine (a basic protein) - Answers Heparin **ANTICOAGULANT** - BETTER BIOAVAILABILITY AND LONGER HALF-LIFE - Given via SQ injection - Levels can be followed by anti-Xa activity - Contraindicated in RENAL DISEASE (excreted renally) - Answers Low Molecular Weight Heparins (LMWH) - Enoxaparin (Lovenox) - Deltaparin (Fragmin) - Fondaparinux (Arixtra) **ANTICOAGULANT** - INDIRECT anticoagulant (via VITAMIN K) - Inhibits proper synthesis of VITAMIN K-DEPENDENT FACTORS (2, 7, 9, and 10) - Effective ORALLY, IN VIVO ONLY (due to indirect effects) - Highly (99%) bound to plasma proteins LOW VOLUME OF DISTRIBUTION and HIGH HALF-LIFE *CHALLENGES:* - Overdose causes INCREASED BLEEDING - ANTIDOTES: Vitamin K1 (phytonadione) Frozen plasma transfusion (RAPID) Transfuse PROTHROMBIN COMPLEX CONCENTRATES (PCCs) - Answers Warfarin (Coumadin) **DIRECT THROMBIN (IIa) INHIBITORS** *Used in patients with Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT)* - Directly inhibit thrombin INDEPENDENT of antithrombin III (inhibits Xa and IIa) - Answers *Hirudin* (Developed from leeches) *Lepirudin (Refluden)* - recombinant form of Hirudin RENALLY metabolized - dose adjustment in PTs w/ DECREASED kidney function *Argatroban* - small molecule inhibitor of thrombin HEPATICALLY metabolized (can lead to ANAPHYLACTIC SHOCK) *Dabigatran* - first ORAL direct thrombin inhibtor (OUTPT USE) **DIRECT FACTOR Xa INHIBITORS** *ORAL direct factor Xa inhibitors*