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WGU D116 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY EXAM
2026/2027 | PHARMACOKINETICS,
PHARMACODYNAMICS & DRUG THERAPY |
EXPERT VERIFIED | 75 VERIFIED Q&A | DETAILED
RATIONALES | PASS GUARANTEED – A+ GRADED
Question 1
A nurse practitioner is reviewing the phases of pharmacokinetics. Which of the following is the
correct order?
A. Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion
B. Distribution, Absorption, Metabolism, Excretion
C. Metabolism, Absorption, Distribution, Excretion
D. Excretion, Metabolism, Distribution, Absorption
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The four phases of pharmacokinetics in order are Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism,
and Excretion (ADME).
Question 2
A nurse practitioner is reviewing the concept of bioavailability. Which route of administration has
100% bioavailability?
A. Oral
B. Intravenous
C. Subcutaneous
D. Intramuscular
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Intravenous administration has 100% bioavailability because the drug is delivered directly
into the bloodstream, bypassing absorption.
Question 3
A nurse practitioner is reviewing first-pass metabolism. Which route bypasses first-pass metabolism?
A. Oral
B. Sublingual
C. Rectal
D. B and C
Correct Answer: D
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Rationale: Sublingual and rectal routes bypass first-pass metabolism because they are absorbed
directly into the systemic circulation.
Question 4
A nurse practitioner is reviewing drug half-life. A drug has a half-life of 4 hours. How long to reach
steady state (4-5 half-lives)?
A. 8 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 16-20 hours
D. 24 hours
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Steady state is reached in 4-5 half-lives: 16-20 hours for a drug with a 4-hour half-life.
Question 5
A nurse practitioner is reviewing therapeutic index. Which drug has a narrow therapeutic index?
A. Penicillin
B. Warfarin
C. Metformin
D. Lisinopril
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Warfarin has a narrow therapeutic index, requiring close monitoring of INR.
Question 6
A nurse practitioner is reviewing cytochrome P450 enzymes. Which drug is an enzyme inducer?
A. Cimetidine
B. Rifampin
C. Fluconazole
D. Ketoconazole
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rifampin is an enzyme inducer. Cimetidine, fluconazole, and ketoconazole are inhibitors.
Question 7
A nurse practitioner is reviewing cytochrome P450 enzymes. Which drug is an enzyme inhibitor?
A. Rifampin
B. Phenobarbital
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C. Cimetidine
D. Carbamazepine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cimetidine is an enzyme inhibitor. Rifampin, phenobarbital, and carbamazepine are
inducers.
Question 8
A nurse practitioner is reviewing drug agonists and antagonists. Which of the following describes a
competitive antagonist?
A. Binds to the same receptor and blocks the agonist
B. Binds to a different receptor
C. Produces the same effect as the agonist
D. Produces a partial effect
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A competitive antagonist binds to the same receptor as the agonist and blocks its effects.
Question 9
A nurse practitioner is reviewing efficacy versus potency. Which of the following best describes
efficacy?
A. Amount of drug needed for effect
B. Maximum effect a drug can produce
C. Time to effect
D. Duration of action
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Efficacy is the maximum effect a drug can produce. Potency is the amount needed for
effect.
Question 10
A nurse practitioner is reviewing the mechanism of action of beta-2 agonists. Which of the following
is the primary effect?
A. Vasoconstriction
B. Bronchodilation
C. Increased heart rate
D. Decreased renin release
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Beta-2 receptor stimulation causes bronchodilation. Beta-1 stimulation increases heart
rate. Alpha-1 stimulation causes vasoconstriction.
WGU D116 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY EXAM
2026/2027 | PHARMACOKINETICS,
PHARMACODYNAMICS & DRUG THERAPY |
EXPERT VERIFIED | 75 VERIFIED Q&A | DETAILED
RATIONALES | PASS GUARANTEED – A+ GRADED
Question 1
A nurse practitioner is reviewing the phases of pharmacokinetics. Which of the following is the
correct order?
A. Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion
B. Distribution, Absorption, Metabolism, Excretion
C. Metabolism, Absorption, Distribution, Excretion
D. Excretion, Metabolism, Distribution, Absorption
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The four phases of pharmacokinetics in order are Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism,
and Excretion (ADME).
Question 2
A nurse practitioner is reviewing the concept of bioavailability. Which route of administration has
100% bioavailability?
A. Oral
B. Intravenous
C. Subcutaneous
D. Intramuscular
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Intravenous administration has 100% bioavailability because the drug is delivered directly
into the bloodstream, bypassing absorption.
Question 3
A nurse practitioner is reviewing first-pass metabolism. Which route bypasses first-pass metabolism?
A. Oral
B. Sublingual
C. Rectal
D. B and C
Correct Answer: D
,2
Rationale: Sublingual and rectal routes bypass first-pass metabolism because they are absorbed
directly into the systemic circulation.
Question 4
A nurse practitioner is reviewing drug half-life. A drug has a half-life of 4 hours. How long to reach
steady state (4-5 half-lives)?
A. 8 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 16-20 hours
D. 24 hours
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Steady state is reached in 4-5 half-lives: 16-20 hours for a drug with a 4-hour half-life.
Question 5
A nurse practitioner is reviewing therapeutic index. Which drug has a narrow therapeutic index?
A. Penicillin
B. Warfarin
C. Metformin
D. Lisinopril
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Warfarin has a narrow therapeutic index, requiring close monitoring of INR.
Question 6
A nurse practitioner is reviewing cytochrome P450 enzymes. Which drug is an enzyme inducer?
A. Cimetidine
B. Rifampin
C. Fluconazole
D. Ketoconazole
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rifampin is an enzyme inducer. Cimetidine, fluconazole, and ketoconazole are inhibitors.
Question 7
A nurse practitioner is reviewing cytochrome P450 enzymes. Which drug is an enzyme inhibitor?
A. Rifampin
B. Phenobarbital
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C. Cimetidine
D. Carbamazepine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cimetidine is an enzyme inhibitor. Rifampin, phenobarbital, and carbamazepine are
inducers.
Question 8
A nurse practitioner is reviewing drug agonists and antagonists. Which of the following describes a
competitive antagonist?
A. Binds to the same receptor and blocks the agonist
B. Binds to a different receptor
C. Produces the same effect as the agonist
D. Produces a partial effect
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A competitive antagonist binds to the same receptor as the agonist and blocks its effects.
Question 9
A nurse practitioner is reviewing efficacy versus potency. Which of the following best describes
efficacy?
A. Amount of drug needed for effect
B. Maximum effect a drug can produce
C. Time to effect
D. Duration of action
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Efficacy is the maximum effect a drug can produce. Potency is the amount needed for
effect.
Question 10
A nurse practitioner is reviewing the mechanism of action of beta-2 agonists. Which of the following
is the primary effect?
A. Vasoconstriction
B. Bronchodilation
C. Increased heart rate
D. Decreased renin release
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Beta-2 receptor stimulation causes bronchodilation. Beta-1 stimulation increases heart
rate. Alpha-1 stimulation causes vasoconstriction.
