PROPHECY CORE MANDATORY
PARTS I, II, & III NURSING CERTIFICATION PREP
Comprehensive Clinical & Regulatory Knowledge Self-Assessment Guide
200 UNIQUE PRACTICE QUESTIONS & RATIONALES
THIS STUDY GUIDE FEATURES:
100% Original Questions: Strictly designed to cover essential competencies without
duplicating test stems or clinical scenarios.
Full Scope Coverage: Exhaustive review of OSHA Standards, HIPAA/HITECH Privacy, Patient
Rights, Infection Control, National Patient Safety Goals (NPSG), Abuse/Neglect Reporting,
Emergency Codes, and Clinical Delegation.
Core Mandatory Part I: Focuses on Safety, Infection Control, Fire, and Emergency
Management.
Core Mandatory Part II: Focuses on Patient Rights, Ethics, Privacy, Abuse Identification, and
Restraints.
Core Mandatory Part III: Focuses on Clinical Nursing Procedures, Medication Safety, Falls,
Stroke, and Sentinel Event Prevention.
Detailed Rationales: Red-highlighted correct answers coupled with comprehensive green-
highlighted clinical justifications for maximum retention.
Document ID: PRPH-CM-2026-V1
Designed for Professional Nursing Review & Professional Development
© Professional Healthcare Education Guide - All Rights Reserved
, PROPHECY CORE MANDATORY PARTS I, II, & III STUDY GUIDE
TABLE OF CONTENTS
PART I: INFECTION CONTROL, OSHA & ENVIRONMENTAL SAFETY (Q1 - Q65) SECTION 1
PART II: PATIENT RIGHTS, PRIVACY, ETHICS & SAFETY GOALS (Q66 - Q135) SECTION 2
PART III: CLINICAL PRACTICE, MEDICATION SAFETY & RISK REDUCTION (Q136 - Q200) SECTION 3
PART I: INFECTION CONTROL, OSHA & ENVIRONMENTAL SAFETY
(QUESTIONS 1 - 65)
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with active pulmonary tuberculosis. Which protective equipment
and room placement are required?
A. Standard mask, positive-pressure room
B. N95 respirator, negative-pressure room
C. Surgical mask with eye shield, private room with door open
D. Contact gown and gloves only, semi-private room
Correct Answer: B
RATIONALE:
Active pulmonary tuberculosis requires Airborne Precautions. This includes placing the patient in an Airborne
Infection Isolation Room (AIIR) with negative air pressure and wearing a fit-tested N95 (or higher) respirator
before entry.
Question 2
When entering a room to care for a patient infected with Clostridioides difficile (C. diff), what specific hand
hygiene measure must be performed upon exiting?
, A. Rubbing hands with alcohol-based hand sanitizer for 15 seconds
B. Washing hands with soap and water for at least 20 seconds
C. Rinsing hands with warm sterile saline solution
D. Wiping hands with an antiseptic chlorhexidine wipe
Correct Answer: B
RATIONALE:
C. difficile bacterial spores are resistant to alcohol-based hand rubs. Washing hands thoroughly with soap
and friction under running water is physically required to remove the spores from the skin.
Question 3
In the event of a small chemical spill in the dirty utility room, where should the nurse immediately look for
specific cleanup and personal protection instructions?
A. Facility Policy and Procedure Manual
B. Safety Data Sheets (SDS)
C. Hospital Incident Management System (HIMS)
D. Clinical Practice Guidelines (CPG)
Correct Answer: B
RATIONALE:
Safety Data Sheets (SDS), governed by OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard, provide detailed
information on hazards, handling, PPE, storage, and emergency cleanup protocols for chemical substances.
Question 4
When applying the RACE acronym during a hospital fire response, what action corresponds to the letter
"A"?
A. Evacuate all mobile individuals
B. Activate the fire alarm system and call emergency response
C. Aim the extinguisher at the base of the fire
D. Assess the extent of smoke damage
Correct Answer: B
RATIONALE:
, RACE stands for: R = Rescue/Remove patients in immediate danger; A = Activate alarm/Alert staff; C =
Contain the fire by closing doors; E = Extinguish the fire or Evacuate.
Question 5
When operating a fire extinguisher using the PASS acronym, what does the second "S" instruct the user to
do?
A. Stand at least 15 feet away
B. Sweep the nozzle from side to side at the base of the fire
C. Squeeze the lever quickly and release
D. Secure the safety pin in the locked position
Correct Answer: B
RATIONALE:
PASS stands for: Pull the pin; Aim at the base of the fire; Squeeze the handle; Sweep side-to-side across the
base of the fire.
Question 6
Which Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) item should always be removed LAST when doffing equipment
after caring for a patient on Contact and Airborne precautions?
A. Isolation gown
B. Disposable gloves
C. Face shield/goggles
D. N95 Respirator or mask
Correct Answer: D
RATIONALE:
The respirator or mask is removed outside the patient room (or at the doorway after exiting) to prevent
inhalation of airborne contaminants during removal. Gloves and gown are removed first inside the room.
Question 7
A nurse suffers an accidental needle stick from a contaminated suture needle. What is the immediate
priority action?
PARTS I, II, & III NURSING CERTIFICATION PREP
Comprehensive Clinical & Regulatory Knowledge Self-Assessment Guide
200 UNIQUE PRACTICE QUESTIONS & RATIONALES
THIS STUDY GUIDE FEATURES:
100% Original Questions: Strictly designed to cover essential competencies without
duplicating test stems or clinical scenarios.
Full Scope Coverage: Exhaustive review of OSHA Standards, HIPAA/HITECH Privacy, Patient
Rights, Infection Control, National Patient Safety Goals (NPSG), Abuse/Neglect Reporting,
Emergency Codes, and Clinical Delegation.
Core Mandatory Part I: Focuses on Safety, Infection Control, Fire, and Emergency
Management.
Core Mandatory Part II: Focuses on Patient Rights, Ethics, Privacy, Abuse Identification, and
Restraints.
Core Mandatory Part III: Focuses on Clinical Nursing Procedures, Medication Safety, Falls,
Stroke, and Sentinel Event Prevention.
Detailed Rationales: Red-highlighted correct answers coupled with comprehensive green-
highlighted clinical justifications for maximum retention.
Document ID: PRPH-CM-2026-V1
Designed for Professional Nursing Review & Professional Development
© Professional Healthcare Education Guide - All Rights Reserved
, PROPHECY CORE MANDATORY PARTS I, II, & III STUDY GUIDE
TABLE OF CONTENTS
PART I: INFECTION CONTROL, OSHA & ENVIRONMENTAL SAFETY (Q1 - Q65) SECTION 1
PART II: PATIENT RIGHTS, PRIVACY, ETHICS & SAFETY GOALS (Q66 - Q135) SECTION 2
PART III: CLINICAL PRACTICE, MEDICATION SAFETY & RISK REDUCTION (Q136 - Q200) SECTION 3
PART I: INFECTION CONTROL, OSHA & ENVIRONMENTAL SAFETY
(QUESTIONS 1 - 65)
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with active pulmonary tuberculosis. Which protective equipment
and room placement are required?
A. Standard mask, positive-pressure room
B. N95 respirator, negative-pressure room
C. Surgical mask with eye shield, private room with door open
D. Contact gown and gloves only, semi-private room
Correct Answer: B
RATIONALE:
Active pulmonary tuberculosis requires Airborne Precautions. This includes placing the patient in an Airborne
Infection Isolation Room (AIIR) with negative air pressure and wearing a fit-tested N95 (or higher) respirator
before entry.
Question 2
When entering a room to care for a patient infected with Clostridioides difficile (C. diff), what specific hand
hygiene measure must be performed upon exiting?
, A. Rubbing hands with alcohol-based hand sanitizer for 15 seconds
B. Washing hands with soap and water for at least 20 seconds
C. Rinsing hands with warm sterile saline solution
D. Wiping hands with an antiseptic chlorhexidine wipe
Correct Answer: B
RATIONALE:
C. difficile bacterial spores are resistant to alcohol-based hand rubs. Washing hands thoroughly with soap
and friction under running water is physically required to remove the spores from the skin.
Question 3
In the event of a small chemical spill in the dirty utility room, where should the nurse immediately look for
specific cleanup and personal protection instructions?
A. Facility Policy and Procedure Manual
B. Safety Data Sheets (SDS)
C. Hospital Incident Management System (HIMS)
D. Clinical Practice Guidelines (CPG)
Correct Answer: B
RATIONALE:
Safety Data Sheets (SDS), governed by OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard, provide detailed
information on hazards, handling, PPE, storage, and emergency cleanup protocols for chemical substances.
Question 4
When applying the RACE acronym during a hospital fire response, what action corresponds to the letter
"A"?
A. Evacuate all mobile individuals
B. Activate the fire alarm system and call emergency response
C. Aim the extinguisher at the base of the fire
D. Assess the extent of smoke damage
Correct Answer: B
RATIONALE:
, RACE stands for: R = Rescue/Remove patients in immediate danger; A = Activate alarm/Alert staff; C =
Contain the fire by closing doors; E = Extinguish the fire or Evacuate.
Question 5
When operating a fire extinguisher using the PASS acronym, what does the second "S" instruct the user to
do?
A. Stand at least 15 feet away
B. Sweep the nozzle from side to side at the base of the fire
C. Squeeze the lever quickly and release
D. Secure the safety pin in the locked position
Correct Answer: B
RATIONALE:
PASS stands for: Pull the pin; Aim at the base of the fire; Squeeze the handle; Sweep side-to-side across the
base of the fire.
Question 6
Which Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) item should always be removed LAST when doffing equipment
after caring for a patient on Contact and Airborne precautions?
A. Isolation gown
B. Disposable gloves
C. Face shield/goggles
D. N95 Respirator or mask
Correct Answer: D
RATIONALE:
The respirator or mask is removed outside the patient room (or at the doorway after exiting) to prevent
inhalation of airborne contaminants during removal. Gloves and gown are removed first inside the room.
Question 7
A nurse suffers an accidental needle stick from a contaminated suture needle. What is the immediate
priority action?
