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EPIC TRAINING COMPREHENSIVE CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION 2026: 200 VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS FOR CLINICAL AND ANALYTICAL WORKFLOWS

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EPIC TRAINING COMPREHENSIVE CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION 2026: 200 VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS FOR CLINICAL AND ANALYTICAL WORKFLOWS

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EPIC TRAINING COMPREHENSIVE CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION 2026: 200 VERIFIED
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS FOR CLINICAL AND ANALYTICAL WORKFLOWS




SECTION 1: PATIENT IDENTIFICATION, REGISTRATION, AND INSURANCE (QUESTIONS
1-40)

1. What are the appropriate forms of primary photo identification for patient
registration?
A) Driver's license and social security card
B) Driver's license, passport, military ID, and state ID
C) Passport and birth certificate
D) State ID and voter registration card
Answer: B
Rationale: Standard registration protocols require government-issued photo
identification to verify patient identity and prevent medical record duplication.
Driver's licenses, passports, military IDs, and state-issued identification cards
are universally accepted forms of primary photo ID.

2. Who is legally responsible for any balance not covered by insurance?
A) The patient's primary care physician
B) The insurance company
C) The guarantor
D) The hospital administration
Answer: C
Rationale: The guarantor is the individual or entity legally obligated to pay the
patient's financial obligations, including copayments, deductibles, and any
balance remaining after insurance payments. This is established during the
registration process.

,3. What is the correct occurrence code for an auto accident that occurred in an at-
fault state?
A) 01
B) 02
C) 03
D) 04
Answer: A
Rationale: Occurrence code 01 specifically denotes an auto accident where the
patient resides in a state with at-fault insurance laws. This code is essential for
proper claim processing and determining liability.

4. What is the correct occurrence code to use when registering a Workers'
Compensation encounter?
A) 01
B) 02
C) 03
D) 04
Answer: D
Rationale: Occurrence code 04 is designated for Workers' Compensation
claims, ensuring proper categorization and processing of work-related injury
claims through the appropriate insurance channels.

5. What term is associated with patient privacy and the electronic submission of
claims?
A) EMTALA
B) HIPAA
C) Medicare
D) Medicaid
Answer: B
Rationale: The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
establishes national standards for protecting sensitive patient health
information and governs the electronic transmission of healthcare claims.

6. Two patients can be linked to the same guarantor account.
A) True
B) False
Answer: A
Rationale: Family members or dependents can share a single guarantor

, account, allowing consolidated billing and payment management for multiple
individuals under one responsible party.

7. You can use the temporary address to ensure a patient's bills are sent to an address
other than their home address.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Rationale: Temporary addresses should not be used for billing purposes. The
permanent address must be maintained for accurate billing and
correspondence to ensure proper delivery of statements and legal notices.

8. What is the purpose of EMTALA?
A) To ensure patients receive free healthcare regardless of insurance status
B) To ensure patients who present for emergency treatment or active labor are
treated regardless of ability to pay
C) To guarantee insurance coverage for emergency room visits
D) To protect patient privacy during emergency treatment
Answer: B
Rationale: The Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act mandates that
hospitals provide stabilizing treatment to any patient presenting with an
emergency medical condition or in active labor, regardless of their ability to
pay.

9. What makes up the Serve for Better model?
A) Service, Integrity, Unity, Respect
B) Empathy, Quality, Experience, Completeness
C) Service, Quality, Integrity, Respect
D) Empathy, Integrity, Unity, Quality
Answer: B
Rationale: The Serve for Better model encompasses four core principles:
Empathy (understanding patient needs), Quality (delivering excellent care),
Experience (creating positive patient interactions), and Completeness
(ensuring thorough service).

10. What are the Conifer core models?
A) Service, Integrity, Unity, Respect
B) Empathy, Quality, Experience, Completeness
C) Service, Quality, Integrity, Respect
D) Empathy, Integrity, Unity, Quality

, Answer: A
Rationale: Conifer's core models emphasize Service (commitment to patients),
Integrity (ethical conduct), Unity (teamwork), and Respect (dignity for all),
forming the foundation for patient-centered care delivery.

11. Key components to verify patient benefits include:
A) Copayment only
B) Policy effective date and coverage limits
C) Copayment for procedure, coinsurance for procedure, policy effective, and
covered benefit
D) Deductible amount only
Answer: C
Rationale: Comprehensive benefits verification requires confirmation of
copayment amounts, coinsurance percentages, policy effective dates, and
specific covered benefits to ensure accurate claim submission and patient
financial responsibility determination.

12. Informing a patient of how long the registration process will take falls under which
AIDET fundamental?
A) Acknowledge
B) Introduce
C) Duration
D) Thank You
Answer: C
Rationale: AIDET (Acknowledge, Introduce, Duration, Explanation, Thank You)
includes Duration as the component for managing patient expectations by
communicating timeframes for processes and procedures.

13. Which ways can help keep PHI private?
A) Log off or lock computer screens when not in use
B) Shred documents containing PHI
C) Lock file cabinets and drawers when PHI is present
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: Protecting Protected Health Information requires multiple
safeguards including technical controls (locking screens), physical security
(securing documents and cabinets), and procedural compliance with privacy
policies.

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