NUR 155 FOUNDATIONS OF NURSING: COMPREHENSIVE EXAM 2, 3 & 4 COMBINED
PRACTICE TEST | GALEN COLLEGE OF NURSING 2026/2027 UPDATED VERIFIED
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES | GRADED A+
SECTION 1: EXAM 2 – FOUNDATIONS OF NURSING, HEALTH, WELLNESS, AND BASIC
CARE
1. Which is the correct definition of health according to the World Health Organization
(WHO)?
A) Merely the absence of disease or infirmity
B) A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, and not merely the absence
of disease or infirmity
C) The ability to engage in physical activity without limitation
D) The absence of symptoms
Answer: B) A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, and not merely
the absence of disease or infirmity
Rationale: The WHO defines health holistically, encompassing physical, mental, and social
well-being, not just the absence of disease.
2. What is the definition of an acute illness?
A) An illness that begins gradually and lasts longer than 6 months
B) An illness typically characterized by an abrupt onset and short duration (less than 6
months)
C) A permanent change in body function
D) An illness that requires ongoing care indefinitely
Answer: B) An illness typically characterized by an abrupt onset and short duration
(less than 6 months)
Rationale: Acute illnesses have a rapid onset and short duration, typically resolving within 6
months. Examples include influenza and acute infections.
,3. A patient has been diagnosed with diabetes, which requires ongoing management for
more than 6 months. This is an example of which type of illness?
A) Acute illness
B) Chronic illness
C) Terminal illness
D) Infectious illness
Answer: B) Chronic illness
Rationale: Chronic illnesses are characterized by a loss or abnormality of body function
that requires ongoing care for more than 6 months. Diabetes, heart disease, and arthritis
are examples.
4. A patient who had a myocardial infarction is participating in cardiac rehabilitation to
prevent further complications. This is an example of which level of prevention?
A) Primary prevention
B) Secondary prevention
C) Tertiary prevention
D) Primordial prevention
Answer: C) Tertiary prevention
Rationale: Tertiary prevention focuses on rehabilitation and preventing further
complications in a patient who already has a disease. Cardiac rehabilitation after a heart
attack aims to restore function and prevent recurrence.
5. The nurse is teaching an adult female client about health promotion. Which of the
following should the nurse recommend as a primary prevention intervention?
A) Performing a breast self-examination (BSE)
B) Having a yearly physical with labs
C) Receiving family planning services
D) Checking blood pressure every 3 months
Answer: C) Receiving family planning services
Rationale: Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs. Family planning
services prevent unintended pregnancies and promote reproductive health. Breast self-
exams and blood pressure checks are secondary prevention (early detection).
,6. A nurse is assessing a client with dehydration. Which finding is most concerning?
A) Moist mucous membranes
B) Urine specific gravity of 1.010
C) Tachycardia
D) Bounding peripheral pulses
Answer: C) Tachycardia
Rationale: Tachycardia is a compensatory mechanism in dehydration to maintain cardiac
output. It indicates significant fluid deficit and can progress to shock if not addressed.
Moist mucous membranes and a urine specific gravity of 1.010 are normal findings.
7. Which electrolyte imbalance places a client at highest risk for cardiac dysrhythmias?
A) Hyponatremia
B) Hypercalcemia
C) Hypokalemia
D) Hypophosphatemia
Answer: C) Hypokalemia
Rationale: Hypokalemia (low potassium) significantly affects cardiac muscle excitability
and conduction, increasing the risk of life-threatening dysrhythmias. Potassium is critical
for maintaining the resting membrane potential of cardiac cells.
8. The nurse reviews laboratory results for a client receiving IV fluids. Which sodium level
requires immediate intervention?
A) 145 mEq/L
B) 138 mEq/L
C) 132 mEq/L
D) 118 mEq/L
Answer: D) 118 mEq/L
Rationale: A sodium level of 118 mEq/L indicates severe hyponatremia, which can cause
neurological symptoms such as seizures, coma, and cerebral edema. Normal sodium
range is 135–145 mEq/L.
, 9. Which IV solution is considered isotonic?
A) 0.45% sodium chloride
B) D5W
C) Lactated Ringer's
D) 3% sodium chloride
Answer: C) Lactated Ringer's
Rationale: Lactated Ringer's is an isotonic solution with an osmolality close to that of
plasma. 0.45% sodium chloride is hypotonic, D5W is isotonic in the bag but hypotonic after
metabolism, and 3% sodium chloride is hypertonic.
10. A nurse is caring for a client with fluid volume overload. Which assessment finding
should the nurse expect?
A) Dry skin
B) Flat neck veins
C) Crackles in the lungs
D) Decreased blood pressure
Answer: C) Crackles in the lungs
Rationale: Fluid volume overload leads to increased pulmonary capillary pressure, causing
fluid to leak into the alveoli, resulting in crackles (rales) on auscultation. Other signs
include distended neck veins, hypertension, and edema.
11. Which action is most important when initiating IV therapy?
A) Prime the tubing with medication
B) Verify the provider's prescription
C) Insert the IV catheter quickly
D) Flush the IV line every hour
Answer: B) Verify the provider's prescription
Rationale: Verifying the provider's prescription ensures the correct fluid, rate, and additives
are administered, preventing medication errors. This is a critical safety step before initiating
any IV therapy.
12. A client has metabolic acidosis. Which condition is the most likely cause?
PRACTICE TEST | GALEN COLLEGE OF NURSING 2026/2027 UPDATED VERIFIED
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES | GRADED A+
SECTION 1: EXAM 2 – FOUNDATIONS OF NURSING, HEALTH, WELLNESS, AND BASIC
CARE
1. Which is the correct definition of health according to the World Health Organization
(WHO)?
A) Merely the absence of disease or infirmity
B) A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, and not merely the absence
of disease or infirmity
C) The ability to engage in physical activity without limitation
D) The absence of symptoms
Answer: B) A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, and not merely
the absence of disease or infirmity
Rationale: The WHO defines health holistically, encompassing physical, mental, and social
well-being, not just the absence of disease.
2. What is the definition of an acute illness?
A) An illness that begins gradually and lasts longer than 6 months
B) An illness typically characterized by an abrupt onset and short duration (less than 6
months)
C) A permanent change in body function
D) An illness that requires ongoing care indefinitely
Answer: B) An illness typically characterized by an abrupt onset and short duration
(less than 6 months)
Rationale: Acute illnesses have a rapid onset and short duration, typically resolving within 6
months. Examples include influenza and acute infections.
,3. A patient has been diagnosed with diabetes, which requires ongoing management for
more than 6 months. This is an example of which type of illness?
A) Acute illness
B) Chronic illness
C) Terminal illness
D) Infectious illness
Answer: B) Chronic illness
Rationale: Chronic illnesses are characterized by a loss or abnormality of body function
that requires ongoing care for more than 6 months. Diabetes, heart disease, and arthritis
are examples.
4. A patient who had a myocardial infarction is participating in cardiac rehabilitation to
prevent further complications. This is an example of which level of prevention?
A) Primary prevention
B) Secondary prevention
C) Tertiary prevention
D) Primordial prevention
Answer: C) Tertiary prevention
Rationale: Tertiary prevention focuses on rehabilitation and preventing further
complications in a patient who already has a disease. Cardiac rehabilitation after a heart
attack aims to restore function and prevent recurrence.
5. The nurse is teaching an adult female client about health promotion. Which of the
following should the nurse recommend as a primary prevention intervention?
A) Performing a breast self-examination (BSE)
B) Having a yearly physical with labs
C) Receiving family planning services
D) Checking blood pressure every 3 months
Answer: C) Receiving family planning services
Rationale: Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs. Family planning
services prevent unintended pregnancies and promote reproductive health. Breast self-
exams and blood pressure checks are secondary prevention (early detection).
,6. A nurse is assessing a client with dehydration. Which finding is most concerning?
A) Moist mucous membranes
B) Urine specific gravity of 1.010
C) Tachycardia
D) Bounding peripheral pulses
Answer: C) Tachycardia
Rationale: Tachycardia is a compensatory mechanism in dehydration to maintain cardiac
output. It indicates significant fluid deficit and can progress to shock if not addressed.
Moist mucous membranes and a urine specific gravity of 1.010 are normal findings.
7. Which electrolyte imbalance places a client at highest risk for cardiac dysrhythmias?
A) Hyponatremia
B) Hypercalcemia
C) Hypokalemia
D) Hypophosphatemia
Answer: C) Hypokalemia
Rationale: Hypokalemia (low potassium) significantly affects cardiac muscle excitability
and conduction, increasing the risk of life-threatening dysrhythmias. Potassium is critical
for maintaining the resting membrane potential of cardiac cells.
8. The nurse reviews laboratory results for a client receiving IV fluids. Which sodium level
requires immediate intervention?
A) 145 mEq/L
B) 138 mEq/L
C) 132 mEq/L
D) 118 mEq/L
Answer: D) 118 mEq/L
Rationale: A sodium level of 118 mEq/L indicates severe hyponatremia, which can cause
neurological symptoms such as seizures, coma, and cerebral edema. Normal sodium
range is 135–145 mEq/L.
, 9. Which IV solution is considered isotonic?
A) 0.45% sodium chloride
B) D5W
C) Lactated Ringer's
D) 3% sodium chloride
Answer: C) Lactated Ringer's
Rationale: Lactated Ringer's is an isotonic solution with an osmolality close to that of
plasma. 0.45% sodium chloride is hypotonic, D5W is isotonic in the bag but hypotonic after
metabolism, and 3% sodium chloride is hypertonic.
10. A nurse is caring for a client with fluid volume overload. Which assessment finding
should the nurse expect?
A) Dry skin
B) Flat neck veins
C) Crackles in the lungs
D) Decreased blood pressure
Answer: C) Crackles in the lungs
Rationale: Fluid volume overload leads to increased pulmonary capillary pressure, causing
fluid to leak into the alveoli, resulting in crackles (rales) on auscultation. Other signs
include distended neck veins, hypertension, and edema.
11. Which action is most important when initiating IV therapy?
A) Prime the tubing with medication
B) Verify the provider's prescription
C) Insert the IV catheter quickly
D) Flush the IV line every hour
Answer: B) Verify the provider's prescription
Rationale: Verifying the provider's prescription ensures the correct fluid, rate, and additives
are administered, preventing medication errors. This is a critical safety step before initiating
any IV therapy.
12. A client has metabolic acidosis. Which condition is the most likely cause?
