NR 568 Advanced Pharmacology for AGPCNP
Final Actual Exam 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
Chamberlain University College of Nursing | Verified Q&A | Graduate-Level Adult-
Gerontology Primary Care Nurse Practitioner Students
This comprehensive final actual exam set contains exactly 111 items constructed to reinforce the official
NR 568 course objectives for the 2026/2027 curriculum. The content is organized across four domains:
Cardiovascular and Endocrine Pharmacology, Respiratory and Infectious Disease Pharmacology,
Neurological and Psychiatric Pharmacology, and Geriatric Pharmacology, Polypharmacy, and Safe
Prescribing. The domains cover 27 to 28 questions each drawn from distinct sub-topics, so every item
evaluates a separate body of knowledge with no duplication across the examination. The items are
designed for Graduate-Level and Advanced Practice Adult-Gerontology Primary Care Nurse Practitioner
students who are working toward the final actual exam, and each question is paired with a rationale
grounded in official NR 568 course materials, foundational advanced pharmacology textbooks, and
current evidence-based clinical practice guidelines. Working through all 111 questions will reinforce drug
mechanisms, adverse effect profiles, interaction awareness, and geriatric prescribing skills required for
advanced clinical prescribing proficiency and final actual exam readiness.
Domain: Cardiovascular and Endocrine Pharmacology
1. Which class of antihypertensive is generally recommended as first-line therapy for most
patients with hypertension?
A. A thiazide diuretic, ACE inhibitor, ARB, or calcium channel blocker per guidelines.
B. An antihistamine.
C. A high-dose corticosteroid.
D. An opioid.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: First-line antihypertensives include thiazide diuretics, ACE inhibitors, ARBs, or calcium
channel blockers according to current blood pressure guidelines. This reflects guideline-based
initial therapy.
2. Which ACE inhibitor adverse effect is characterized by a dry, persistent cough?
A. A sign of anaphylaxis.
B. A placebo effect.
C. A common, non-life-threatening adverse effect that may prompt a switch to an ARB.
D. A required reason to stop all therapy.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A dry cough is a common adverse effect of ACE inhibitors and often prompts switching
to an ARB. This is a key prescribing consideration.
3. Which electrolyte should be monitored closely in a patient started on an ACE inhibitor
or ARB?
A. Serum potassium and renal function.
B. Only serum magnesium.
C. Only serum phosphorus.
D. Only serum calcium.
Correct Answer: A
NR 568 Advanced Pharmacology for AGPCNP Final Actual Exam 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
, Rationale: ACE inhibitors and ARBs can cause hyperkalemia and affect renal function, so
potassium and renal function are monitored. This is a safety priority.
4. Which beta-blocker is contraindicated in a patient with severe asthma?
A. A non-selective beta-blocker.
B. No beta-blocker is ever risky.
C. Any beta-blocker in all patients.
D. A cardioselective beta-blocker at low dose.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Non-selective beta-blockers can provoke bronchospasm and are contraindicated in
severe asthma. This is a key contraindication to recognize.
5. Which laboratory value is a priority to monitor in a patient taking a statin?
A. Only serum sodium.
B. Only the platelet count.
C. Liver enzymes and a lipid panel.
D. Only the white blood cell count.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Statin therapy is monitored with a lipid panel and liver enzymes to evaluate efficacy
and safety. This is standard monitoring.
6. Which adverse effect should the nurse practitioner warn about when prescribing a
statin?
A. Muscle pain and the risk of myopathy.
B. Excess energy.
C. Increased platelet count.
D. Improved appetite.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Statins can cause muscle pain and myopathy, which should be reported. This is an
important patient education point.
7. Which drug is the first-line agent for type 2 diabetes when metformin is tolerated?
A. Metformin.
B. An antiplatelet.
C. Insulin glargine.
D. A sulfonylurea.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Metformin is generally first-line for type 2 diabetes when tolerated. This reflects
current diabetes guidelines.
8. Which adverse effect is a key concern with metformin therapy?
A. Hyperkalemia.
B. Hypoglycemia in all patients.
C. Constipation.
D. Lactic acidosis, particularly with renal impairment.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Metformin can cause lactic acidosis, especially in patients with renal impairment or
acute illness. This is a critical safety consideration.
9. Which sulfonylurea adverse effect should be monitored and taught to the patient?
A. Hyperglycemia.
B. Hypernatremia.
C. Hypoglycemia.
D. Hyperkalemia.
NR 568 Advanced Pharmacology for AGPCNP Final Actual Exam 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
, Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sulfonylureas stimulate insulin release and can cause hypoglycemia. Patients must
recognize and treat it. This is a key education point.
10. Which insulin provides a long-acting basal coverage?
A. Insulin aspart.
B. Insulin lispro.
C. Regular insulin.
D. Insulin glargine.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Insulin glargine is a long-acting basal insulin. Distinguishing basal from prandial
insulins is foundational to diabetes pharmacology.
11. Which insulin is appropriate for rapid-acting coverage at mealtime?
A. Insulin glargine.
B. Insulin aspart.
C. Insulin detemir.
D. NPH insulin.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Insulin aspart is a rapid-acting prandial insulin given at mealtime. This is a key
classification in insulin therapy.
12. Which condition is a contraindication to metformin?
A. Mild, stable renal function.
B. Well-controlled glucose.
C. Normal liver enzymes.
D. Severe renal impairment.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Metformin is contraindicated in severe renal impairment due to the risk of lactic
acidosis. This is a critical prescribing consideration.
13. Which thyroid medication is the standard replacement therapy for hypothyroidism?
A. An antithyroid drug.
B. A beta-blocker as monotherapy.
C. Levothyroxine.
D. Insulin.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Levothyroxine is the standard replacement for hypothyroidism. This is the primary
treatment for the condition.
14. Which laboratory value is used to titrate levothyroxine?
A. Thyroid-stimulating hormone.
B. Only the glucose.
C. Only the hemoglobin.
D. Only the platelet count.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Levothyroxine is titrated by monitoring thyroid-stimulating hormone. This is the
standard assessment measure.
15. Which adverse effect indicates possible excessive levothyroxine dosing?
A. Palpitations, anxiety, and tremors.
B. Cold intolerance.
C. Constipation.
NR 568 Advanced Pharmacology for AGPCNP Final Actual Exam 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
Final Actual Exam 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
Chamberlain University College of Nursing | Verified Q&A | Graduate-Level Adult-
Gerontology Primary Care Nurse Practitioner Students
This comprehensive final actual exam set contains exactly 111 items constructed to reinforce the official
NR 568 course objectives for the 2026/2027 curriculum. The content is organized across four domains:
Cardiovascular and Endocrine Pharmacology, Respiratory and Infectious Disease Pharmacology,
Neurological and Psychiatric Pharmacology, and Geriatric Pharmacology, Polypharmacy, and Safe
Prescribing. The domains cover 27 to 28 questions each drawn from distinct sub-topics, so every item
evaluates a separate body of knowledge with no duplication across the examination. The items are
designed for Graduate-Level and Advanced Practice Adult-Gerontology Primary Care Nurse Practitioner
students who are working toward the final actual exam, and each question is paired with a rationale
grounded in official NR 568 course materials, foundational advanced pharmacology textbooks, and
current evidence-based clinical practice guidelines. Working through all 111 questions will reinforce drug
mechanisms, adverse effect profiles, interaction awareness, and geriatric prescribing skills required for
advanced clinical prescribing proficiency and final actual exam readiness.
Domain: Cardiovascular and Endocrine Pharmacology
1. Which class of antihypertensive is generally recommended as first-line therapy for most
patients with hypertension?
A. A thiazide diuretic, ACE inhibitor, ARB, or calcium channel blocker per guidelines.
B. An antihistamine.
C. A high-dose corticosteroid.
D. An opioid.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: First-line antihypertensives include thiazide diuretics, ACE inhibitors, ARBs, or calcium
channel blockers according to current blood pressure guidelines. This reflects guideline-based
initial therapy.
2. Which ACE inhibitor adverse effect is characterized by a dry, persistent cough?
A. A sign of anaphylaxis.
B. A placebo effect.
C. A common, non-life-threatening adverse effect that may prompt a switch to an ARB.
D. A required reason to stop all therapy.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A dry cough is a common adverse effect of ACE inhibitors and often prompts switching
to an ARB. This is a key prescribing consideration.
3. Which electrolyte should be monitored closely in a patient started on an ACE inhibitor
or ARB?
A. Serum potassium and renal function.
B. Only serum magnesium.
C. Only serum phosphorus.
D. Only serum calcium.
Correct Answer: A
NR 568 Advanced Pharmacology for AGPCNP Final Actual Exam 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
, Rationale: ACE inhibitors and ARBs can cause hyperkalemia and affect renal function, so
potassium and renal function are monitored. This is a safety priority.
4. Which beta-blocker is contraindicated in a patient with severe asthma?
A. A non-selective beta-blocker.
B. No beta-blocker is ever risky.
C. Any beta-blocker in all patients.
D. A cardioselective beta-blocker at low dose.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Non-selective beta-blockers can provoke bronchospasm and are contraindicated in
severe asthma. This is a key contraindication to recognize.
5. Which laboratory value is a priority to monitor in a patient taking a statin?
A. Only serum sodium.
B. Only the platelet count.
C. Liver enzymes and a lipid panel.
D. Only the white blood cell count.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Statin therapy is monitored with a lipid panel and liver enzymes to evaluate efficacy
and safety. This is standard monitoring.
6. Which adverse effect should the nurse practitioner warn about when prescribing a
statin?
A. Muscle pain and the risk of myopathy.
B. Excess energy.
C. Increased platelet count.
D. Improved appetite.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Statins can cause muscle pain and myopathy, which should be reported. This is an
important patient education point.
7. Which drug is the first-line agent for type 2 diabetes when metformin is tolerated?
A. Metformin.
B. An antiplatelet.
C. Insulin glargine.
D. A sulfonylurea.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Metformin is generally first-line for type 2 diabetes when tolerated. This reflects
current diabetes guidelines.
8. Which adverse effect is a key concern with metformin therapy?
A. Hyperkalemia.
B. Hypoglycemia in all patients.
C. Constipation.
D. Lactic acidosis, particularly with renal impairment.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Metformin can cause lactic acidosis, especially in patients with renal impairment or
acute illness. This is a critical safety consideration.
9. Which sulfonylurea adverse effect should be monitored and taught to the patient?
A. Hyperglycemia.
B. Hypernatremia.
C. Hypoglycemia.
D. Hyperkalemia.
NR 568 Advanced Pharmacology for AGPCNP Final Actual Exam 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
, Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sulfonylureas stimulate insulin release and can cause hypoglycemia. Patients must
recognize and treat it. This is a key education point.
10. Which insulin provides a long-acting basal coverage?
A. Insulin aspart.
B. Insulin lispro.
C. Regular insulin.
D. Insulin glargine.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Insulin glargine is a long-acting basal insulin. Distinguishing basal from prandial
insulins is foundational to diabetes pharmacology.
11. Which insulin is appropriate for rapid-acting coverage at mealtime?
A. Insulin glargine.
B. Insulin aspart.
C. Insulin detemir.
D. NPH insulin.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Insulin aspart is a rapid-acting prandial insulin given at mealtime. This is a key
classification in insulin therapy.
12. Which condition is a contraindication to metformin?
A. Mild, stable renal function.
B. Well-controlled glucose.
C. Normal liver enzymes.
D. Severe renal impairment.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Metformin is contraindicated in severe renal impairment due to the risk of lactic
acidosis. This is a critical prescribing consideration.
13. Which thyroid medication is the standard replacement therapy for hypothyroidism?
A. An antithyroid drug.
B. A beta-blocker as monotherapy.
C. Levothyroxine.
D. Insulin.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Levothyroxine is the standard replacement for hypothyroidism. This is the primary
treatment for the condition.
14. Which laboratory value is used to titrate levothyroxine?
A. Thyroid-stimulating hormone.
B. Only the glucose.
C. Only the hemoglobin.
D. Only the platelet count.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Levothyroxine is titrated by monitoring thyroid-stimulating hormone. This is the
standard assessment measure.
15. Which adverse effect indicates possible excessive levothyroxine dosing?
A. Palpitations, anxiety, and tremors.
B. Cold intolerance.
C. Constipation.
NR 568 Advanced Pharmacology for AGPCNP Final Actual Exam 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
