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NUR 314 Final | Q&A | 2026/2027 | Nursing Health Assessment | ASU | Graded A+

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This document helps you master the NUR 314 Health Assessment for Registered Nurses final exam at Arizona State University via targeted Q&A with detailed rationales. It covers evidence-based assessment techniques, comprehensive health history and interview strategies, mental status and cultural competence evaluation, systematic physical examination methods (inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation), respiratory and abdominal assessment, neurological function and pain management, and professional responsibilities in clinical decision-making. Engineered to maximize retention and sharpen critical understanding, this test pack simplifies complex content, saving preparation time and helping you secure an A on your Final Exam Assessment.

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NUR 314 Final exam | Q&A | 2026/2027 | Nursing Health Assessment
| ASU | Graded A+

1. A nursing student is reviewing the components of a comprehensive health
history. Which element is considered part of the "past health history"?

A) The client's religious and spiritual beliefs

B) A description of the client's current symptoms

C) The client's history of childhood illnesses and immunizations

D) The client's occupation and living situation



Correct Answer: The client's history of childhood illnesses and immunizations



Rationale: Past health history includes childhood illnesses, immunizations,
surgeries, hospitalizations, and chronic illnesses. Current symptoms are the
history of present illness, occupation and living situation are social history,
and religious beliefs are part of the psychosocial history.



2. A nurse is performing a physical assessment on a client. Which technique
should be used first?

A) Palpation

B) Percussion

C) Inspection

D) Auscultation



Correct Answer: Inspection



Rationale: Inspection is always the first assessment technique used. It
involves using the sense of sight to observe the client and their environment.
Palpation, percussion, and auscultation follow inspection to gather additional
data.

,3. A client reports joint pain that is worse in the morning and improves with
activity. The nurse recognizes this pattern as consistent with which
condition?

A) Osteoarthritis

B) Rheumatoid arthritis

C) Gout

D) Bursitis



Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis



Rationale: Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by morning stiffness that
lasts more than 30 minutes and improves with activity. Osteoarthritis pain
worsens with activity and improves with rest. Gout causes sudden, severe
pain, and bursitis causes localized pain with movement.



4. A nurse is assessing a client's skin turgor. Which site is most commonly
used for this assessment?

A) The forehead

B) The abdomen

C) The sternum or inner forearm

D) The back of the hand



Correct Answer: The sternum or inner forearm



Rationale: Skin turgor is assessed by gently pinching the skin on the sternum
or inner forearm and observing how quickly it returns to normal. Decreased
turgor indicates dehydration. The forehead, abdomen, and back of the hand
are less commonly used.

,5. The nurse is preparing to assess a client's pupillary response. Which
cranial nerve is primarily responsible for pupillary constriction?

A) Cranial Nerve II (Optic)

B) Cranial Nerve III (Oculomotor)

C) Cranial Nerve IV (Trochlear)

D) Cranial Nerve VI (Abducens)



Correct Answer: Cranial Nerve III (Oculomotor)



Rationale: Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor) is responsible for pupillary
constriction (parasympathetic response) and most extraocular eye
movements. Cranial nerve II is sensory for vision, IV controls the superior
oblique muscle, and VI controls the lateral rectus muscle.



6. A client is being assessed for possible peripheral artery disease (PAD).
Which finding is most consistent with this condition?

A) Bilateral lower extremity edema

B) Thick, rigid toenails and hair loss on the lower legs

C) Warm, pink skin on the feet

D) Distended jugular veins



Correct Answer: Thick, rigid toenails and hair loss on the lower legs



Rationale: PAD is characterized by decreased arterial blood flow to the
extremities, leading to hair loss, thick nails, pale or cyanotic skin, and
diminished pulses. Edema, warm skin, and jugular vein distention are more
consistent with venous insufficiency or heart failure.



7. A nurse is assessing a client's breath sounds. Which sound is considered
normal over the peripheral lung fields?

, A) Bronchial

B) Bronchovesicular

C) Vesicular

D) Tracheal



Correct Answer: Vesicular



Rationale: Vesicular breath sounds are soft, low-pitched sounds heard over
the peripheral lung fields. Bronchial sounds are heard over the trachea,
bronchovesicular sounds are heard over the major bronchi, and tracheal
sounds are heard over the trachea.



8. Which finding in a client's nails is most suggestive of chronic hypoxia?

A) Beau's lines

B) Clubbing

C) Spooning

D) Splinter hemorrhages



Correct Answer: Clubbing



Rationale: Clubbing is characterized by an increased angle of the nail base
and is associated with chronic hypoxia from conditions such as COPD or
congenital heart disease. Beau's lines are horizontal depressions, spooning is
associated with iron deficiency anemia, and splinter hemorrhages are small
red or brown lines.



9. A nurse is assessing a client with a suspected stroke. Which finding would
the nurse expect to see if the client has left-sided brain damage?

A) Left-sided weakness

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