FNP 654 GCU Final Exam Prep Test Bank 1 | 400
Questions & Answers Grand Canyon University | Family
Primary Care II | 2026-2027 Edition
This comprehensive test bank contains 400 verified questions and answers for
the FNP 654 Family Primary Care II Final Exam at Grand Canyon University. The
questions reflect actual exam content across women's health, pediatrics,
neurology, endocrinology, dermatology, oncology, infectious disease, and
pharmacology domains . Each question includes a detailed rationale to reinforce
clinical reasoning.
Content Area Overview
Section Topics Question
Contraception, abnormal Pap, PID, amenorrhea,
Women's Health 1-100
menopause, breast cancer, HPV
Sickle cell, iron deficiency, ITP, leukemia, newborn
Pediatrics 101-150
assessment, milestones
Neurology & Mental ALS, Bell's palsy, cluster headaches, delirium,
151-220
Health epilepsy, dementia, stroke
Addison's disease, Cushing's syndrome, thyroid
Endocrinology 221-260
disorders, osteoporosis
Dermatology Melanoma, tinea, eczema, dermoscopy, drug rashes 261-300
,Section Topics Question
Anemia, MDS, lymphoma, chemotherapy
Hematology/Oncology 301-340
complications
Infectious Disease UTI, HIV, STIs, immunizations, pneumonia 341-380
Pain management, drug interactions, vaccine
Pharmacology & General 381-400
schedules
SECTION 1: WOMEN'S HEALTH (Questions 1-100)
Question 1: A 16-year-old female has primary amenorrhea. A pregnancy test is
negative. Further testing reveals a normal TSH and an elevated prolactin level.
Which test will the provider order next?
A) Pelvic ultrasound
B) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
C) Genetic testing
D) Progesterone challenge
Correct Answer: B) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Rationale: Elevated prolactin (hyperprolactinemia) in the setting of amenorrhea
suggests a pituitary adenoma (prolactinoma). MRI of the pituitary gland is the
appropriate next step to evaluate for this cause . Prolactinomas are the most
common pituitary tumors and can cause amenorrhea through suppression of
gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH).
Question 2: An asymptomatic female learns that her boyfriend has gonorrhea and
asks about antibiotics. What will the provider recommend?
A) Wait for symptoms before treatment
B) Empiric ceftriaxone and azithromycin
C) Doxycycline alone
D) No treatment needed
,Correct Answer: B) Empiric ceftriaxone and azithromycin
Rationale: Empiric treatment for gonorrhea exposure is recommended even
without symptoms. Current CDC guidelines recommend dual therapy with
ceftriaxone 500 mg IM and azithromycin 1 g PO to cover both gonorrhea and
chlamydia, as co-infection is common .
Question 3: A 16-year-old sexually active female has symptoms of PID with fever.
Cultures are pending. For outpatient treatment, what will the provider order?
A) Ceftriaxone only
B) Doxycycline and metronidazole
C) Rocephin, doxycycline, and metronidazole
D) Azithromycin monotherapy
Correct Answer: C) Rocephin, doxycycline, and metronidazole
Rationale: Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) with fever requires broad-spectrum
coverage. Outpatient regimens include ceftriaxone (Rocephin) for gonorrhea,
doxycycline for chlamydia, and metronidazole for anaerobic coverage, given the
polymicrobial nature of PID .
Question 4: A woman who has had routine Pap tests all of her adult life has an
abnormal Pap with low-grade intraepithelial lesion. What will the provider tell her
about this result?
A) Repeat Pap in 12 months
B) Colposcopy with biopsy is necessary
C) HPV vaccination is needed
D) No further action is required
Correct Answer: B) Colposcopy with biopsy is necessary
Rationale: Low-grade intraepithelial lesions (LSIL) in women who have had
routine screening require colposcopy with biopsy to evaluate for higher-grade
dysplasia. This is especially important in older women who have maintained
routine screening, as LSIL can represent underlying CIN 2+ .
Question 5: A woman who has just weaned her infant from breastfeeding
develops signs of mastitis and is treated with antibiotics. At a follow-up visit, the
, provider notes marked breast edema and erythema of the affected breast. What
will the provider do next?
A) Continue current antibiotics
B) Refer the patient for an immediate biopsy
C) Prescribe antifungal medication
D) Recommend warm compresses
Correct Answer: B) Refer the patient for an immediate biopsy
Rationale: Mastitis that does not resolve with antibiotics, especially with marked
edema and erythema, raises concern for inflammatory breast cancer.
Inflammatory breast cancer can present with symptoms mimicking mastitis
(redness, swelling, warmth) but does not respond to antibiotics. Prompt biopsy is
indicated .
Question 6: A postmenopausal woman reports unilateral breast pain that she
describes as sharp and burning and localized to one area. A breast examination
reveals no dimpling, discharge, or masses. Which diagnostic test will the provider
order?
A) Ultrasound-guided biopsy
B) Bilateral mammography
C) Breast MRI
D) Observation and reassurance
Correct Answer: B) Bilateral mammography
Rationale: Unilateral, localized breast pain in a postmenopausal woman warrants
imaging evaluation. Bilateral mammography is the recommended initial imaging
study to evaluate for underlying pathology even when no palpable mass is
present .
Question 7: An adolescent female has amenorrhea. The provider notes short
stature, neck webbing, and a pigeon chest deformity. Based on these symptoms,
what is the underlying disorder causing this patient's amenorrhea?
A) Polycystic ovary syndrome
B) Turner's syndrome
Questions & Answers Grand Canyon University | Family
Primary Care II | 2026-2027 Edition
This comprehensive test bank contains 400 verified questions and answers for
the FNP 654 Family Primary Care II Final Exam at Grand Canyon University. The
questions reflect actual exam content across women's health, pediatrics,
neurology, endocrinology, dermatology, oncology, infectious disease, and
pharmacology domains . Each question includes a detailed rationale to reinforce
clinical reasoning.
Content Area Overview
Section Topics Question
Contraception, abnormal Pap, PID, amenorrhea,
Women's Health 1-100
menopause, breast cancer, HPV
Sickle cell, iron deficiency, ITP, leukemia, newborn
Pediatrics 101-150
assessment, milestones
Neurology & Mental ALS, Bell's palsy, cluster headaches, delirium,
151-220
Health epilepsy, dementia, stroke
Addison's disease, Cushing's syndrome, thyroid
Endocrinology 221-260
disorders, osteoporosis
Dermatology Melanoma, tinea, eczema, dermoscopy, drug rashes 261-300
,Section Topics Question
Anemia, MDS, lymphoma, chemotherapy
Hematology/Oncology 301-340
complications
Infectious Disease UTI, HIV, STIs, immunizations, pneumonia 341-380
Pain management, drug interactions, vaccine
Pharmacology & General 381-400
schedules
SECTION 1: WOMEN'S HEALTH (Questions 1-100)
Question 1: A 16-year-old female has primary amenorrhea. A pregnancy test is
negative. Further testing reveals a normal TSH and an elevated prolactin level.
Which test will the provider order next?
A) Pelvic ultrasound
B) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
C) Genetic testing
D) Progesterone challenge
Correct Answer: B) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Rationale: Elevated prolactin (hyperprolactinemia) in the setting of amenorrhea
suggests a pituitary adenoma (prolactinoma). MRI of the pituitary gland is the
appropriate next step to evaluate for this cause . Prolactinomas are the most
common pituitary tumors and can cause amenorrhea through suppression of
gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH).
Question 2: An asymptomatic female learns that her boyfriend has gonorrhea and
asks about antibiotics. What will the provider recommend?
A) Wait for symptoms before treatment
B) Empiric ceftriaxone and azithromycin
C) Doxycycline alone
D) No treatment needed
,Correct Answer: B) Empiric ceftriaxone and azithromycin
Rationale: Empiric treatment for gonorrhea exposure is recommended even
without symptoms. Current CDC guidelines recommend dual therapy with
ceftriaxone 500 mg IM and azithromycin 1 g PO to cover both gonorrhea and
chlamydia, as co-infection is common .
Question 3: A 16-year-old sexually active female has symptoms of PID with fever.
Cultures are pending. For outpatient treatment, what will the provider order?
A) Ceftriaxone only
B) Doxycycline and metronidazole
C) Rocephin, doxycycline, and metronidazole
D) Azithromycin monotherapy
Correct Answer: C) Rocephin, doxycycline, and metronidazole
Rationale: Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) with fever requires broad-spectrum
coverage. Outpatient regimens include ceftriaxone (Rocephin) for gonorrhea,
doxycycline for chlamydia, and metronidazole for anaerobic coverage, given the
polymicrobial nature of PID .
Question 4: A woman who has had routine Pap tests all of her adult life has an
abnormal Pap with low-grade intraepithelial lesion. What will the provider tell her
about this result?
A) Repeat Pap in 12 months
B) Colposcopy with biopsy is necessary
C) HPV vaccination is needed
D) No further action is required
Correct Answer: B) Colposcopy with biopsy is necessary
Rationale: Low-grade intraepithelial lesions (LSIL) in women who have had
routine screening require colposcopy with biopsy to evaluate for higher-grade
dysplasia. This is especially important in older women who have maintained
routine screening, as LSIL can represent underlying CIN 2+ .
Question 5: A woman who has just weaned her infant from breastfeeding
develops signs of mastitis and is treated with antibiotics. At a follow-up visit, the
, provider notes marked breast edema and erythema of the affected breast. What
will the provider do next?
A) Continue current antibiotics
B) Refer the patient for an immediate biopsy
C) Prescribe antifungal medication
D) Recommend warm compresses
Correct Answer: B) Refer the patient for an immediate biopsy
Rationale: Mastitis that does not resolve with antibiotics, especially with marked
edema and erythema, raises concern for inflammatory breast cancer.
Inflammatory breast cancer can present with symptoms mimicking mastitis
(redness, swelling, warmth) but does not respond to antibiotics. Prompt biopsy is
indicated .
Question 6: A postmenopausal woman reports unilateral breast pain that she
describes as sharp and burning and localized to one area. A breast examination
reveals no dimpling, discharge, or masses. Which diagnostic test will the provider
order?
A) Ultrasound-guided biopsy
B) Bilateral mammography
C) Breast MRI
D) Observation and reassurance
Correct Answer: B) Bilateral mammography
Rationale: Unilateral, localized breast pain in a postmenopausal woman warrants
imaging evaluation. Bilateral mammography is the recommended initial imaging
study to evaluate for underlying pathology even when no palpable mass is
present .
Question 7: An adolescent female has amenorrhea. The provider notes short
stature, neck webbing, and a pigeon chest deformity. Based on these symptoms,
what is the underlying disorder causing this patient's amenorrhea?
A) Polycystic ovary syndrome
B) Turner's syndrome
