ATI RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR 2026 EXIT EXAM — NGN
PACKAGE
Full Practice Exam Verified ANSWER>.>s + Rationale for Every
Option
Question 1 — SATA
Content Area: Management of Care
A charge nurse is teaching newly licensed nurses about the rights of delegation. Which statements
should be included? (Select all that apply.)
A. The right task means the delegated task must be appropriate for the delegatee.
B. The right person involves delegating to the most experienced nurse available.
C. The right direction requires the nurse to give clear, specific instructions.
D. The right supervision means following up to evaluate task completion.
E. The right circumstance includes ensuring the delegatee has authority to perform the task.
Correct ANSWER>.>: A, C, D, E
A — Correct: right task = activity within the delegatee's role and job description.
B — Incorrect: right person = matching scope and competency, not seniority.
C — Correct: right direction = clear instructions, limits, and expectations.
D — Correct: right supervision = monitoring, follow‑up, evaluation, and feedback.
E — Correct: right circumstance = appropriate client setting and delegatee authority.
<br>
Question 2 — MCQ
Content Area: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies
A nurse is preparing to transfuse 1 unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). Which action should the nurse
take FIRST?
,A. Obtain a large‑bore IV access.
B. Verify the blood product with another nurse at the bedside.
C. Obtain baseline vital signs.
D. Prime the tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride.
Correct ANSWER>.>: B
A — Incorrect: large‑bore access (18–20G) is needed but verification is the priority safety step.
B — Correct: two‑person verification prevents transfusion errors and is done first at bedside.
C — Incorrect: baseline vitals are required but after verification priority.
D — Incorrect: only NS primes blood tubing, yet verification precedes setup.
<br>
Question 3 — MCQ
Content Area: Physiological Adaptation
A client with heart failure receives furosemide. Which finding requires notifying the provider?
A. Urine output 60 mL/hr.
B. Blood pressure 118/76 mmHg.
C. Serum potassium 2.9 mEq/L.
D. Weight loss 0.5 kg in 24 hr.
Correct ANSWER>.>: C
A — Incorrect: 60 mL/hr is adequate output.
B — Incorrect: BP is within acceptable range.
C — Correct: hypokalemia (<3.5) is an adverse effect risking dysrhythmias.
D — Incorrect: gradual weight loss reflects effective diuresis.
<br>
Question 4 — MCQ
Content Area: Management of Care
Which client should the nurse assess FIRST during change‑of‑shift report?
A. Client with COPD whose O2 saturation is 89% on room air.
,B. Client post‑thyroidectomy who reports tingling lips and stridor.
C. Client with diabetes whose fasting glucose is 180 mg/dL.
D. Client with pneumonia reporting pleuritic pain 4/10.
Correct ANSWER>.>: B
A — Incorrect: 89% may be baseline for COPD; not immediately life‑threatening.
B — Correct: stridor + tingling = hypocalcemia/airway compromise; ABC priority.
C — Incorrect: 180 mg/dL is elevated but not emergent.
D — Incorrect: expected pain; manageable after airway threats.
<br>
Question 5 — MCQ
Content Area: Safety and Infection Control
Which client requires airborne precautions?
A. Influenza.
B. Measles (rubeola).
C. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV).
D. Bacterial meningitis.
Correct ANSWER>.>: B
A — Incorrect: influenza = droplet precautions.
B — Correct: measles is transmitted via airborne route; N95 + negative pressure.
C — Incorrect: RSV = contact (and droplet) precautions.
D — Incorrect: meningitis = droplet precautions for 24 hr of antibiotics.
<br>
Question 6 — MCQ
Content Area: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies
A client on digoxin has nausea and yellow‑green halos. The nurse should first:
A. Administer the next dose with food.
B. Check the digoxin level and potassium.
, C. Encourage oral fluids.
D. Document as an expected side effect.
Correct ANSWER>.>: B
A — Incorrect: giving more drug worsens toxicity.
B — Correct: visual changes + GI upset signal toxicity; hypokalemia potentiates it.
C — Incorrect: fluids do not reverse toxicity.
D — Incorrect: these are toxicity signs, never expected.
<br>
Question 7 — SATA
Content Area: Reduction of Risk Potential
Which findings indicate hypokalemia? (Select all that apply.)
A. Muscle weakness.
B. Peaked T waves on ECG.
C. Leg cramps.
D. Hypoactive bowel sounds.
E. Bounding pulse.
Correct ANSWER>.>: A, C, D
A — Correct: low K+ causes skeletal muscle weakness.
B — Incorrect: peaked T waves = hyperkalemia.
C — Correct: cramping occurs with low potassium.
D — Correct: decreased smooth‑muscle activity causes ileus/constipation.
E — Incorrect: dysrhythmias with weak pulse occur, not bounding.
<br>
Question 8 — MCQ
Content Area: Health Promotion and Maintenance
A mother asks when her infant can sit alone. The best response is:
A. "By 3 months."
PACKAGE
Full Practice Exam Verified ANSWER>.>s + Rationale for Every
Option
Question 1 — SATA
Content Area: Management of Care
A charge nurse is teaching newly licensed nurses about the rights of delegation. Which statements
should be included? (Select all that apply.)
A. The right task means the delegated task must be appropriate for the delegatee.
B. The right person involves delegating to the most experienced nurse available.
C. The right direction requires the nurse to give clear, specific instructions.
D. The right supervision means following up to evaluate task completion.
E. The right circumstance includes ensuring the delegatee has authority to perform the task.
Correct ANSWER>.>: A, C, D, E
A — Correct: right task = activity within the delegatee's role and job description.
B — Incorrect: right person = matching scope and competency, not seniority.
C — Correct: right direction = clear instructions, limits, and expectations.
D — Correct: right supervision = monitoring, follow‑up, evaluation, and feedback.
E — Correct: right circumstance = appropriate client setting and delegatee authority.
<br>
Question 2 — MCQ
Content Area: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies
A nurse is preparing to transfuse 1 unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). Which action should the nurse
take FIRST?
,A. Obtain a large‑bore IV access.
B. Verify the blood product with another nurse at the bedside.
C. Obtain baseline vital signs.
D. Prime the tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride.
Correct ANSWER>.>: B
A — Incorrect: large‑bore access (18–20G) is needed but verification is the priority safety step.
B — Correct: two‑person verification prevents transfusion errors and is done first at bedside.
C — Incorrect: baseline vitals are required but after verification priority.
D — Incorrect: only NS primes blood tubing, yet verification precedes setup.
<br>
Question 3 — MCQ
Content Area: Physiological Adaptation
A client with heart failure receives furosemide. Which finding requires notifying the provider?
A. Urine output 60 mL/hr.
B. Blood pressure 118/76 mmHg.
C. Serum potassium 2.9 mEq/L.
D. Weight loss 0.5 kg in 24 hr.
Correct ANSWER>.>: C
A — Incorrect: 60 mL/hr is adequate output.
B — Incorrect: BP is within acceptable range.
C — Correct: hypokalemia (<3.5) is an adverse effect risking dysrhythmias.
D — Incorrect: gradual weight loss reflects effective diuresis.
<br>
Question 4 — MCQ
Content Area: Management of Care
Which client should the nurse assess FIRST during change‑of‑shift report?
A. Client with COPD whose O2 saturation is 89% on room air.
,B. Client post‑thyroidectomy who reports tingling lips and stridor.
C. Client with diabetes whose fasting glucose is 180 mg/dL.
D. Client with pneumonia reporting pleuritic pain 4/10.
Correct ANSWER>.>: B
A — Incorrect: 89% may be baseline for COPD; not immediately life‑threatening.
B — Correct: stridor + tingling = hypocalcemia/airway compromise; ABC priority.
C — Incorrect: 180 mg/dL is elevated but not emergent.
D — Incorrect: expected pain; manageable after airway threats.
<br>
Question 5 — MCQ
Content Area: Safety and Infection Control
Which client requires airborne precautions?
A. Influenza.
B. Measles (rubeola).
C. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV).
D. Bacterial meningitis.
Correct ANSWER>.>: B
A — Incorrect: influenza = droplet precautions.
B — Correct: measles is transmitted via airborne route; N95 + negative pressure.
C — Incorrect: RSV = contact (and droplet) precautions.
D — Incorrect: meningitis = droplet precautions for 24 hr of antibiotics.
<br>
Question 6 — MCQ
Content Area: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies
A client on digoxin has nausea and yellow‑green halos. The nurse should first:
A. Administer the next dose with food.
B. Check the digoxin level and potassium.
, C. Encourage oral fluids.
D. Document as an expected side effect.
Correct ANSWER>.>: B
A — Incorrect: giving more drug worsens toxicity.
B — Correct: visual changes + GI upset signal toxicity; hypokalemia potentiates it.
C — Incorrect: fluids do not reverse toxicity.
D — Incorrect: these are toxicity signs, never expected.
<br>
Question 7 — SATA
Content Area: Reduction of Risk Potential
Which findings indicate hypokalemia? (Select all that apply.)
A. Muscle weakness.
B. Peaked T waves on ECG.
C. Leg cramps.
D. Hypoactive bowel sounds.
E. Bounding pulse.
Correct ANSWER>.>: A, C, D
A — Correct: low K+ causes skeletal muscle weakness.
B — Incorrect: peaked T waves = hyperkalemia.
C — Correct: cramping occurs with low potassium.
D — Correct: decreased smooth‑muscle activity causes ileus/constipation.
E — Incorrect: dysrhythmias with weak pulse occur, not bounding.
<br>
Question 8 — MCQ
Content Area: Health Promotion and Maintenance
A mother asks when her infant can sit alone. The best response is:
A. "By 3 months."
