,BIOL331/BIOL 331 Pathophysiology Final Module
Exam | Portage Learning |Q&A | 26/27 Edition
1. What is the best definition of pathophysiology?
A) The study of body structures and their relationships
B) The study of functional changes in the body due to disease
C) The study of drug interactions within the body
D) The study of psychological responses to illness
Correct Answer: The study of functional changes in the body due to disease
Rationale: Pathophysiology merges pathology (structural changes) with physiology (functional changes)
to explain how normal body processes are altered by disease. It is not the study of structures (anatomy),
drug interactions (pharmacology), or psychological responses.
2. A patient reports feeling dizzy and nauseated. These are examples of:
A) Signs
B) Symptoms
C) Diagnoses
D) Prognoses
Correct Answer: Symptoms
Rationale: Symptoms are subjective complaints reported by the patient that cannot be directly
measured by an examiner. Signs are objective, measurable findings (e.g., fever, rash). Diagnoses are the
identification of a disease, and prognoses are predictions of outcome.
3. Which term refers to the predicted outcome of a disease?
A) Diagnosis
B) Etiology
,C) Prognosis
D) Morbidity
Correct Answer: Prognosis
Rationale: Prognosis is the likely course and outcome of a disease. Etiology is the cause, diagnosis is the
identification, and morbidity is the illness burden.
4. The proportion of people WITH a disease who test positive is called:
A) Specificity
B) Sensitivity
C) Prevalence
D) Incidence
Correct Answer: Sensitivity
Rationale: Sensitivity measures a test's ability to correctly identify those with the disease (True Positive
Rate). Specificity measures the ability to correctly identify those without the disease. Prevalence is the
total number of existing cases, and incidence is the number of new cases.
5. A screening mammogram is an example of which prevention level?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Quaternary
Correct Answer: Secondary
, Rationale: Secondary prevention focuses on early detection of disease in asymptomatic individuals to
allow for early intervention and cure. Primary prevention prevents disease before it occurs (e.g.,
vaccination), and tertiary prevention manages established disease.
6. Vaccination against influenza is an example of:
A) Primary prevention
B) Secondary prevention
C) Tertiary prevention
D) Quaternary prevention
Correct Answer: Primary prevention
Rationale: Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs by reducing risk factors or
providing immunity. Vaccination is a classic example of primary prevention, as it protects against
infection before exposure.
7. A bodybuilder's enlarged muscles result from:
A) Hyperplasia
B) Hypertrophy
C) Metaplasia
D) Dysplasia
Correct Answer: Hypertrophy
Rationale: Hypertrophy is an increase in the size of cells. Skeletal muscle cells respond to increased
workload (exercise) by enlarging (hypertrophy), not dividing (hyperplasia).
8. Uterine enlargement during pregnancy is due to:
A) Hypertrophy only
B) Hyperplasia only
Exam | Portage Learning |Q&A | 26/27 Edition
1. What is the best definition of pathophysiology?
A) The study of body structures and their relationships
B) The study of functional changes in the body due to disease
C) The study of drug interactions within the body
D) The study of psychological responses to illness
Correct Answer: The study of functional changes in the body due to disease
Rationale: Pathophysiology merges pathology (structural changes) with physiology (functional changes)
to explain how normal body processes are altered by disease. It is not the study of structures (anatomy),
drug interactions (pharmacology), or psychological responses.
2. A patient reports feeling dizzy and nauseated. These are examples of:
A) Signs
B) Symptoms
C) Diagnoses
D) Prognoses
Correct Answer: Symptoms
Rationale: Symptoms are subjective complaints reported by the patient that cannot be directly
measured by an examiner. Signs are objective, measurable findings (e.g., fever, rash). Diagnoses are the
identification of a disease, and prognoses are predictions of outcome.
3. Which term refers to the predicted outcome of a disease?
A) Diagnosis
B) Etiology
,C) Prognosis
D) Morbidity
Correct Answer: Prognosis
Rationale: Prognosis is the likely course and outcome of a disease. Etiology is the cause, diagnosis is the
identification, and morbidity is the illness burden.
4. The proportion of people WITH a disease who test positive is called:
A) Specificity
B) Sensitivity
C) Prevalence
D) Incidence
Correct Answer: Sensitivity
Rationale: Sensitivity measures a test's ability to correctly identify those with the disease (True Positive
Rate). Specificity measures the ability to correctly identify those without the disease. Prevalence is the
total number of existing cases, and incidence is the number of new cases.
5. A screening mammogram is an example of which prevention level?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Quaternary
Correct Answer: Secondary
, Rationale: Secondary prevention focuses on early detection of disease in asymptomatic individuals to
allow for early intervention and cure. Primary prevention prevents disease before it occurs (e.g.,
vaccination), and tertiary prevention manages established disease.
6. Vaccination against influenza is an example of:
A) Primary prevention
B) Secondary prevention
C) Tertiary prevention
D) Quaternary prevention
Correct Answer: Primary prevention
Rationale: Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs by reducing risk factors or
providing immunity. Vaccination is a classic example of primary prevention, as it protects against
infection before exposure.
7. A bodybuilder's enlarged muscles result from:
A) Hyperplasia
B) Hypertrophy
C) Metaplasia
D) Dysplasia
Correct Answer: Hypertrophy
Rationale: Hypertrophy is an increase in the size of cells. Skeletal muscle cells respond to increased
workload (exercise) by enlarging (hypertrophy), not dividing (hyperplasia).
8. Uterine enlargement during pregnancy is due to:
A) Hypertrophy only
B) Hyperplasia only
