ABFM ITE | FROM QUESTION TO PERFECTION| STUDY
WITH CONFIDENCE!
Course Code:
Course Title: ABFM ITE .
Programme:
Academic Year: 2026/2027
Duration: 2 Hours
Total Marks: 100
Candidate Instructions:
1) Write your Registration Number on every answer booklet used.
2) Answer ALL questions in Section A and ANY TWO (2) questions in Section B.
3) Read each question carefully before answering.
4) Begin each question on a new page.
5) The marks for each question are indicated in brackets.
6) This paper consists of several printed pages, including this page.
7) Ensure your copy is complete before the examination begins.
8) Unauthorized materials and communication with other candidates are not permitted.
Turn Over.
APPHIA – Crafted with Care and Precision for Academic Excellence.
1
,A 42-year-old Asian male presents for follow-up of elevated blood pressure. He has no
additional chronic medical problems and is otherwise asymptomatic. An examination is
significant for a blood pressure of 162/95 mm Hg but is otherwise unremarkable.
Laboratory Findings
Sodium 138 mEq/L (N 135-145) Potassium 3.9 mEq/L (N 3.5-5.5) Fastingglucose
86mg/dLBUN 14 mg/dL (N 10-20) Creatinine 0.6mg/dL(N0.6-1.3) Urinemicroalbumin
negative
According to the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association 2017 guidelines,
which one of the following would be the most appropriate medication to initiate at this time?
A) Clonidine (Catapres), 0.1 mg twice daily
B) Hydralazine, 25 mg three times daily
C) Lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide (Zestoretic), 10/12.5 mg daily
D) Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor), 25 mg twice daily
E) Triamterene (Dyrenium), 50 mg daily Answer: ANSWER: C
This patient has hypertension and according to both JNC 8 and American College of
Cardiology/American Heart Association 2017 guidelines, antihypertensive treatment should be
initiated. For the general non-African-American population, monotherapy with an ACE
inhibitor, an angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker, or a thiazide diuretic
would be appropriate for initial management. It is also appropriate to initiate combination
antihypertensive therapy as an initial management strategy, although patients should not take an
ACE inhibitor and an angiotensin receptor blocker simultaneously. Studies have shown that
blood pressure control is achieved faster with the initiation of combination therapy compared to
monotherapy, without an increase in morbidity. Lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide would be an
appropriate choice in this patient. -Blockers, vasodilators, -blockers, and potassium-sparing
diuretics are not recommended as initial choices for the treatment of hypertension.
During rounds at the nursing home, you are informed that there are two residents on the unit
with laboratory-confirmed influenza. According to CDC guidelines, who should receive
chemoprophylaxis for influenza?
A) Only symptomatic residents on the same unit
B) Only symptomatic residents in the entire facility
C) All asymptomatic residents on the same unit
D) All residents of the facility regardless of symptoms
E) All staff regardless of symptoms Answer: ANSWER: C
In long-term care facilities, an influenza outbreak is defined as two laboratory-confirmed cases
of influenza within 72 hours in patients on the same unit. The CDC recommends
APPHIA – Crafted with Care and Precision for Academic Excellence.
2
,chemoprophylaxis for all asymptomatic residents of the affected unit. Any resident exhibiting
symptoms of influenza should be treated for influenza and not given chemoprophylaxis dosing.
Chemoprophylaxis is not recommended for residents of other units unless there are two
laboratory-confirmed cases in those units. Facility staff of the affected unit can be considered
for chemoprophylaxis if they have not been vaccinated or if they had a recent vaccination, but
chemoprophylaxis is not recommended for all staff in the entire facility.
A 24-year-old female presents with a 2-day history of mild to moderate pelvic pain. She has had
two male sex partners in the last 6 months and uses oral contraceptives and sometimes condoms.
A physical examination reveals a temperature of 36.4°C (97.5°F) and moderate cervical motion
and uterine tenderness. Urine hCG and a urinalysis are negative. Vaginal microscopy shows
only WBCs.
The initiation of antibiotics for treatment of pelvic inflammatory disease in this patient
A) is appropriate at this time
B) requires an elevated temperature, WBC count, or C-reactive protein level
C) should be based on the results of gonorrhea and Chlamydia testing
D) should be based on the results of pelvic ultrasonography Answer: ANSWER: A
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a clinical diagnosis, and treatment should be administered
at the time of diagnosis and not delayed until the results of the nucleic acid amplification testing
(NAAT) for gonorrhea and Chlamydia are returned. The clinical diagnosis is based on an at-risk
woman presenting with lower abdominal or pelvic pain, accompanied by cervical motion,
uterine, or adnexal tenderness that can range from mild to severe. There is often a mucopurulent
discharge or WBCs on saline microscopy. Acute phase indicators such as fever, leukocytosis, or
an elevated C-reactive protein level may be helpful but are neither sensitive nor specific. A
positive NAAT is not required for diagnosis and treatment because an upper tract infection may
be present, or the causative agent may not be gonorrhea or Chlamydia. PID should be
considered a polymicrobial infection. Pelvic ultrasonography may be used if there is a concern
about other pathology such as a tubo-ovarian abscess.
A 24-year-old patient wants to start the process of transitioning from female to male. He has
been working with a psychiatrist who has confirmed the diagnosis of gender dysphoria.
Which one of the following would be the best initial treatment for this patient?
A) Clomiphene
B) Letrozole (Femara)
C) Leuprolide (Eligard)
D) Spironolactone (Aldactone)
E) Testosterone Answer: ANSWER: E
APPHIA – Crafted with Care and Precision for Academic Excellence.
3
, For patients with gender dysphoria or gender incongruence who desire hormone treatment, the
treatment goal is to suppress endogenous sex hormone production and maintain sex hormone
levels in the normal range for their affirmed gender. For a female-to-male transgender patient
this is most easily accomplished with testosterone. When testosterone levels are maintained in
the normal genetic male range, gonadotropins and ovarian hormone production is suppressed,
which accomplishes both goals for hormonal treatment without the need for additional
gonadotropin suppression from medications such as leuprolide.
Clomiphene can increase serum testosterone levels, but only in the presence of a functioning
testicle. Letrozole is an estrogen receptor antagonist, but it would not increase serum
testosterone levels. Spironolactone has androgen receptor blocking effects and would not
accomplish either of the hormone treatment goals.
Based on American Cancer Society guidelines for cervical cancer screening, when should HPV
DNA co-testing first be performed along with Papanicolaou testing?
A) At the onset of sexual activity
B) At age 21
C) At age 25
D) At age 30
E) At age 35 Answer: ANSWER: D
According to American Cancer Society guidelines for cervical cancer screening, Papanicolaou
(Pap) testing should begin at age 21 irrespective of sexual activity and should be continued
every 3 years until age 29. The preferred screening strategy beginning at age 30 is Pap testing
with HPV co-testing, which should be continued every 5 years until age 65. Cervical screening
may be discontinued at that time if the patient's last two tests have been negative and the patient
was tested within the previous 5 years.
Long-term proton pump inhibitor use is associated with an increased risk for
A) Barrett's esophagus
B) gout
C) hypertension
D) pneumonia
E) type 2 diabetes Answer: ANSWER: D
Acid suppression therapy is associated with an increased risk of community-acquired and health
care-associated pneumonia, which is related to gastric overgrowth by gram-negative bacteria.
Long-term treatment of Barrett's esophagus is an indication for chronic proton pump inhibitor
(PPI) use. PPI therapy does not increase the risk of gout, hypertension, or type 2 diabetes.
APPHIA – Crafted with Care and Precision for Academic Excellence.
4
WITH CONFIDENCE!
Course Code:
Course Title: ABFM ITE .
Programme:
Academic Year: 2026/2027
Duration: 2 Hours
Total Marks: 100
Candidate Instructions:
1) Write your Registration Number on every answer booklet used.
2) Answer ALL questions in Section A and ANY TWO (2) questions in Section B.
3) Read each question carefully before answering.
4) Begin each question on a new page.
5) The marks for each question are indicated in brackets.
6) This paper consists of several printed pages, including this page.
7) Ensure your copy is complete before the examination begins.
8) Unauthorized materials and communication with other candidates are not permitted.
Turn Over.
APPHIA – Crafted with Care and Precision for Academic Excellence.
1
,A 42-year-old Asian male presents for follow-up of elevated blood pressure. He has no
additional chronic medical problems and is otherwise asymptomatic. An examination is
significant for a blood pressure of 162/95 mm Hg but is otherwise unremarkable.
Laboratory Findings
Sodium 138 mEq/L (N 135-145) Potassium 3.9 mEq/L (N 3.5-5.5) Fastingglucose
86mg/dLBUN 14 mg/dL (N 10-20) Creatinine 0.6mg/dL(N0.6-1.3) Urinemicroalbumin
negative
According to the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association 2017 guidelines,
which one of the following would be the most appropriate medication to initiate at this time?
A) Clonidine (Catapres), 0.1 mg twice daily
B) Hydralazine, 25 mg three times daily
C) Lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide (Zestoretic), 10/12.5 mg daily
D) Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor), 25 mg twice daily
E) Triamterene (Dyrenium), 50 mg daily Answer: ANSWER: C
This patient has hypertension and according to both JNC 8 and American College of
Cardiology/American Heart Association 2017 guidelines, antihypertensive treatment should be
initiated. For the general non-African-American population, monotherapy with an ACE
inhibitor, an angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker, or a thiazide diuretic
would be appropriate for initial management. It is also appropriate to initiate combination
antihypertensive therapy as an initial management strategy, although patients should not take an
ACE inhibitor and an angiotensin receptor blocker simultaneously. Studies have shown that
blood pressure control is achieved faster with the initiation of combination therapy compared to
monotherapy, without an increase in morbidity. Lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide would be an
appropriate choice in this patient. -Blockers, vasodilators, -blockers, and potassium-sparing
diuretics are not recommended as initial choices for the treatment of hypertension.
During rounds at the nursing home, you are informed that there are two residents on the unit
with laboratory-confirmed influenza. According to CDC guidelines, who should receive
chemoprophylaxis for influenza?
A) Only symptomatic residents on the same unit
B) Only symptomatic residents in the entire facility
C) All asymptomatic residents on the same unit
D) All residents of the facility regardless of symptoms
E) All staff regardless of symptoms Answer: ANSWER: C
In long-term care facilities, an influenza outbreak is defined as two laboratory-confirmed cases
of influenza within 72 hours in patients on the same unit. The CDC recommends
APPHIA – Crafted with Care and Precision for Academic Excellence.
2
,chemoprophylaxis for all asymptomatic residents of the affected unit. Any resident exhibiting
symptoms of influenza should be treated for influenza and not given chemoprophylaxis dosing.
Chemoprophylaxis is not recommended for residents of other units unless there are two
laboratory-confirmed cases in those units. Facility staff of the affected unit can be considered
for chemoprophylaxis if they have not been vaccinated or if they had a recent vaccination, but
chemoprophylaxis is not recommended for all staff in the entire facility.
A 24-year-old female presents with a 2-day history of mild to moderate pelvic pain. She has had
two male sex partners in the last 6 months and uses oral contraceptives and sometimes condoms.
A physical examination reveals a temperature of 36.4°C (97.5°F) and moderate cervical motion
and uterine tenderness. Urine hCG and a urinalysis are negative. Vaginal microscopy shows
only WBCs.
The initiation of antibiotics for treatment of pelvic inflammatory disease in this patient
A) is appropriate at this time
B) requires an elevated temperature, WBC count, or C-reactive protein level
C) should be based on the results of gonorrhea and Chlamydia testing
D) should be based on the results of pelvic ultrasonography Answer: ANSWER: A
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a clinical diagnosis, and treatment should be administered
at the time of diagnosis and not delayed until the results of the nucleic acid amplification testing
(NAAT) for gonorrhea and Chlamydia are returned. The clinical diagnosis is based on an at-risk
woman presenting with lower abdominal or pelvic pain, accompanied by cervical motion,
uterine, or adnexal tenderness that can range from mild to severe. There is often a mucopurulent
discharge or WBCs on saline microscopy. Acute phase indicators such as fever, leukocytosis, or
an elevated C-reactive protein level may be helpful but are neither sensitive nor specific. A
positive NAAT is not required for diagnosis and treatment because an upper tract infection may
be present, or the causative agent may not be gonorrhea or Chlamydia. PID should be
considered a polymicrobial infection. Pelvic ultrasonography may be used if there is a concern
about other pathology such as a tubo-ovarian abscess.
A 24-year-old patient wants to start the process of transitioning from female to male. He has
been working with a psychiatrist who has confirmed the diagnosis of gender dysphoria.
Which one of the following would be the best initial treatment for this patient?
A) Clomiphene
B) Letrozole (Femara)
C) Leuprolide (Eligard)
D) Spironolactone (Aldactone)
E) Testosterone Answer: ANSWER: E
APPHIA – Crafted with Care and Precision for Academic Excellence.
3
, For patients with gender dysphoria or gender incongruence who desire hormone treatment, the
treatment goal is to suppress endogenous sex hormone production and maintain sex hormone
levels in the normal range for their affirmed gender. For a female-to-male transgender patient
this is most easily accomplished with testosterone. When testosterone levels are maintained in
the normal genetic male range, gonadotropins and ovarian hormone production is suppressed,
which accomplishes both goals for hormonal treatment without the need for additional
gonadotropin suppression from medications such as leuprolide.
Clomiphene can increase serum testosterone levels, but only in the presence of a functioning
testicle. Letrozole is an estrogen receptor antagonist, but it would not increase serum
testosterone levels. Spironolactone has androgen receptor blocking effects and would not
accomplish either of the hormone treatment goals.
Based on American Cancer Society guidelines for cervical cancer screening, when should HPV
DNA co-testing first be performed along with Papanicolaou testing?
A) At the onset of sexual activity
B) At age 21
C) At age 25
D) At age 30
E) At age 35 Answer: ANSWER: D
According to American Cancer Society guidelines for cervical cancer screening, Papanicolaou
(Pap) testing should begin at age 21 irrespective of sexual activity and should be continued
every 3 years until age 29. The preferred screening strategy beginning at age 30 is Pap testing
with HPV co-testing, which should be continued every 5 years until age 65. Cervical screening
may be discontinued at that time if the patient's last two tests have been negative and the patient
was tested within the previous 5 years.
Long-term proton pump inhibitor use is associated with an increased risk for
A) Barrett's esophagus
B) gout
C) hypertension
D) pneumonia
E) type 2 diabetes Answer: ANSWER: D
Acid suppression therapy is associated with an increased risk of community-acquired and health
care-associated pneumonia, which is related to gastric overgrowth by gram-negative bacteria.
Long-term treatment of Barrett's esophagus is an indication for chronic proton pump inhibitor
(PPI) use. PPI therapy does not increase the risk of gout, hypertension, or type 2 diabetes.
APPHIA – Crafted with Care and Precision for Academic Excellence.
4
