[NRNP 6645 MIDTERM EXAM LATEST UPDATE | (WALDEN
UNIVERSITY)] QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+.
100% VERIFIED SOLUTIONS | UPDATED PER LATEST GUIDELINES |
GRADED A+
Question 1
A psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner (PMHNP) is conducting an initial psychiatric assessment on a 34-
year-old client. Which of the following is the most important component of the psychiatric history?
A. Family history of mental illness
B. Current medications and allergies
C. History of present illness
D. Past medical history
🟢 Correct Answer: C. History of present illness
🔴 RATIONALE: The history of present illness provides detailed information about the client's current
symptoms, including onset, duration, severity, and associated factors, which is essential for accurate diagnosis
,and treatment planning. While family history, medications, and medical history are important, the HPI is the
most critical component for understanding the current presenting problem.
Question 2
A PMHNP is evaluating a 28-year-old client who reports persistent sadness, anhedonia, and difficulty sleeping
for the past 4 weeks. The client also reports significant weight loss and feelings of worthlessness. Which of the
following is the most appropriate initial screening tool?
A. PHQ-9
B. GAD-7
C. MDQ
D. AUDIT
🟢 Correct Answer: A. PHQ-9
🔴 RATIONALE: The PHQ-9 is a validated screening tool for depression that assesses the severity of depressive
symptoms based on DSM-5 criteria. The GAD-7 screens for anxiety, the MDQ screens for bipolar disorder, and
the AUDIT screens for alcohol use disorder. The client's symptoms are consistent with major depressive
disorder, making the PHQ-9 the most appropriate screening tool.
,Question 3
A PMHNP is prescribing an SSRI to a 45-year-old client with major depressive disorder. Which of the following
is the most important safety consideration?
A. Risk of serotonin syndrome
B. Risk of weight gain
C. Risk of sexual dysfunction
D. Risk of gastrointestinal bleeding
🟢 Correct Answer: A. Risk of serotonin syndrome
🔴 RATIONALE: Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by excessive
serotonergic activity, particularly when SSRIs are combined with other serotonergic medications. While weight
gain, sexual dysfunction, and gastrointestinal bleeding are important considerations, serotonin syndrome is the
most serious safety concern. The PMHNP should educate the client about signs and symptoms.
Question 4
A PMHNP is working with a client who has been diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder. The client reports
excessive worry that is difficult to control and has been present for 8 months. Which of the following is the first-
line psychological treatment for GAD?
, A. Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT)
B. Psychodynamic therapy
C. Interpersonal therapy (IPT)
D. Supportive therapy
🟢 Correct Answer: A. Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT)
🔴 RATIONALE: CBT is the first-line psychological treatment for generalized anxiety disorder. It helps clients
identify and challenge maladaptive thoughts and develop coping strategies for managing worry.
Psychodynamic therapy, IPT, and supportive therapy have less evidence for GAD compared to CBT.
Question 5
A PMHNP is assessing a 22-year-old client who reports recurrent episodes of intense fear, palpitations, and
shortness of breath. These episodes occur unexpectedly and are followed by worry about having additional
episodes. Which of the following diagnoses is most consistent with these symptoms?
A. Generalized anxiety disorder
B. Panic disorder
C. Social anxiety disorder
UNIVERSITY)] QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+.
100% VERIFIED SOLUTIONS | UPDATED PER LATEST GUIDELINES |
GRADED A+
Question 1
A psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner (PMHNP) is conducting an initial psychiatric assessment on a 34-
year-old client. Which of the following is the most important component of the psychiatric history?
A. Family history of mental illness
B. Current medications and allergies
C. History of present illness
D. Past medical history
🟢 Correct Answer: C. History of present illness
🔴 RATIONALE: The history of present illness provides detailed information about the client's current
symptoms, including onset, duration, severity, and associated factors, which is essential for accurate diagnosis
,and treatment planning. While family history, medications, and medical history are important, the HPI is the
most critical component for understanding the current presenting problem.
Question 2
A PMHNP is evaluating a 28-year-old client who reports persistent sadness, anhedonia, and difficulty sleeping
for the past 4 weeks. The client also reports significant weight loss and feelings of worthlessness. Which of the
following is the most appropriate initial screening tool?
A. PHQ-9
B. GAD-7
C. MDQ
D. AUDIT
🟢 Correct Answer: A. PHQ-9
🔴 RATIONALE: The PHQ-9 is a validated screening tool for depression that assesses the severity of depressive
symptoms based on DSM-5 criteria. The GAD-7 screens for anxiety, the MDQ screens for bipolar disorder, and
the AUDIT screens for alcohol use disorder. The client's symptoms are consistent with major depressive
disorder, making the PHQ-9 the most appropriate screening tool.
,Question 3
A PMHNP is prescribing an SSRI to a 45-year-old client with major depressive disorder. Which of the following
is the most important safety consideration?
A. Risk of serotonin syndrome
B. Risk of weight gain
C. Risk of sexual dysfunction
D. Risk of gastrointestinal bleeding
🟢 Correct Answer: A. Risk of serotonin syndrome
🔴 RATIONALE: Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by excessive
serotonergic activity, particularly when SSRIs are combined with other serotonergic medications. While weight
gain, sexual dysfunction, and gastrointestinal bleeding are important considerations, serotonin syndrome is the
most serious safety concern. The PMHNP should educate the client about signs and symptoms.
Question 4
A PMHNP is working with a client who has been diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder. The client reports
excessive worry that is difficult to control and has been present for 8 months. Which of the following is the first-
line psychological treatment for GAD?
, A. Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT)
B. Psychodynamic therapy
C. Interpersonal therapy (IPT)
D. Supportive therapy
🟢 Correct Answer: A. Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT)
🔴 RATIONALE: CBT is the first-line psychological treatment for generalized anxiety disorder. It helps clients
identify and challenge maladaptive thoughts and develop coping strategies for managing worry.
Psychodynamic therapy, IPT, and supportive therapy have less evidence for GAD compared to CBT.
Question 5
A PMHNP is assessing a 22-year-old client who reports recurrent episodes of intense fear, palpitations, and
shortness of breath. These episodes occur unexpectedly and are followed by worry about having additional
episodes. Which of the following diagnoses is most consistent with these symptoms?
A. Generalized anxiety disorder
B. Panic disorder
C. Social anxiety disorder
