[NEW!!! AMLS 3RD EDITION POST TEST] QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
ALREADY GRADED A+. 100% VERIFIED SOLUTIONS | UPDATED PER
LATEST GUIDELINES | GRADED A+
Question 1
A 68-year-old male presents with acute onset of severe, tearing chest pain radiating to the back. His blood
pressure is 160/90 mmHg in the right arm and 110/70 mmHg in the left arm. Which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Acute myocardial infarction
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Aortic dissection
D. Pericarditis
🟢 Correct Answer: C. Aortic dissection
🔴 RATIONALE: Acute aortic dissection presents with sudden onset of severe, tearing chest pain radiating to
the back, often with a blood pressure differential between arms. AMI presents with pressure-like chest pain,
pulmonary embolism with dyspnea and pleuritic pain, and pericarditis with sharp, positional pain.
,Question 2
A 45-year-old female presents with severe headache, nausea, and photophobia. She reports that the headache
came on suddenly and is "the worst headache of her life." On examination, she has nuchal rigidity. Which of the
following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test?
A. CT scan of the head without contrast
B. Lumbar puncture
C. MRI of the brain
D. Electroencephalogram
🟢 Correct Answer: A. CT scan of the head without contrast
🔴 RATIONALE: The classic presentation of subarachnoid hemorrhage is a sudden, severe "thunderclap"
headache with nuchal rigidity. Non-contrast CT of the head is the initial imaging study of choice. Lumbar
puncture is indicated if CT is negative but clinical suspicion remains high.
Question 3
A 55-year-old male with a history of hypertension and smoking presents with acute onset of right-sided
weakness, facial droop, and expressive aphasia. Symptoms began 45 minutes ago. Which of the following is the
,most appropriate immediate intervention?
A. Administer aspirin 325 mg
B. Administer tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)
C. Obtain a non-contrast CT of the head
D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
🟢 Correct Answer: C. Obtain a non-contrast CT of the head
🔴 RATIONALE: In a patient with suspected acute stroke, a non-contrast CT of the head must be obtained
immediately to differentiate ischemic stroke from hemorrhagic stroke. tPA can only be administered if the CT
shows no hemorrhage and the patient meets criteria. Aspirin should not be given before hemorrhage is ruled
out.
Question 4
A 68-year-old female presents with progressive shortness of breath, orthopnea, and bilateral lower extremity
edema. On examination, she has crackles in the lung bases and jugular venous distension. Which of the
following is the most appropriate initial intervention?
A. Administer furosemide
B. Administer oxygen
, C. Position the patient in high Fowler's position
D. Obtain a chest X-ray
🟢 Correct Answer: C. Position the patient in high Fowler's position
🔴 RATIONALE: In a patient with suspected acute heart failure, positioning in high Fowler's position promotes
lung expansion and reduces venous return, improving oxygenation. Administering oxygen, furosemide, and
obtaining a chest X-ray are important but should follow positioning.
Question 5
A 32-year-old male presents with fever, chills, and a productive cough. He reports recent travel to the
southwestern United States. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Bacterial pneumonia
B. Coccidioidomycosis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Viral pneumonia
🟢 Correct Answer: B. Coccidioidomycosis
ALREADY GRADED A+. 100% VERIFIED SOLUTIONS | UPDATED PER
LATEST GUIDELINES | GRADED A+
Question 1
A 68-year-old male presents with acute onset of severe, tearing chest pain radiating to the back. His blood
pressure is 160/90 mmHg in the right arm and 110/70 mmHg in the left arm. Which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Acute myocardial infarction
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Aortic dissection
D. Pericarditis
🟢 Correct Answer: C. Aortic dissection
🔴 RATIONALE: Acute aortic dissection presents with sudden onset of severe, tearing chest pain radiating to
the back, often with a blood pressure differential between arms. AMI presents with pressure-like chest pain,
pulmonary embolism with dyspnea and pleuritic pain, and pericarditis with sharp, positional pain.
,Question 2
A 45-year-old female presents with severe headache, nausea, and photophobia. She reports that the headache
came on suddenly and is "the worst headache of her life." On examination, she has nuchal rigidity. Which of the
following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test?
A. CT scan of the head without contrast
B. Lumbar puncture
C. MRI of the brain
D. Electroencephalogram
🟢 Correct Answer: A. CT scan of the head without contrast
🔴 RATIONALE: The classic presentation of subarachnoid hemorrhage is a sudden, severe "thunderclap"
headache with nuchal rigidity. Non-contrast CT of the head is the initial imaging study of choice. Lumbar
puncture is indicated if CT is negative but clinical suspicion remains high.
Question 3
A 55-year-old male with a history of hypertension and smoking presents with acute onset of right-sided
weakness, facial droop, and expressive aphasia. Symptoms began 45 minutes ago. Which of the following is the
,most appropriate immediate intervention?
A. Administer aspirin 325 mg
B. Administer tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)
C. Obtain a non-contrast CT of the head
D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
🟢 Correct Answer: C. Obtain a non-contrast CT of the head
🔴 RATIONALE: In a patient with suspected acute stroke, a non-contrast CT of the head must be obtained
immediately to differentiate ischemic stroke from hemorrhagic stroke. tPA can only be administered if the CT
shows no hemorrhage and the patient meets criteria. Aspirin should not be given before hemorrhage is ruled
out.
Question 4
A 68-year-old female presents with progressive shortness of breath, orthopnea, and bilateral lower extremity
edema. On examination, she has crackles in the lung bases and jugular venous distension. Which of the
following is the most appropriate initial intervention?
A. Administer furosemide
B. Administer oxygen
, C. Position the patient in high Fowler's position
D. Obtain a chest X-ray
🟢 Correct Answer: C. Position the patient in high Fowler's position
🔴 RATIONALE: In a patient with suspected acute heart failure, positioning in high Fowler's position promotes
lung expansion and reduces venous return, improving oxygenation. Administering oxygen, furosemide, and
obtaining a chest X-ray are important but should follow positioning.
Question 5
A 32-year-old male presents with fever, chills, and a productive cough. He reports recent travel to the
southwestern United States. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Bacterial pneumonia
B. Coccidioidomycosis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Viral pneumonia
🟢 Correct Answer: B. Coccidioidomycosis
