NSG 554 EXAM 4 V3 - NURSE
PRACTITIONERS IN PRIMARY CARE I
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
1. A 45-year-old female presents with a pearly, waxy papule with central ulceration and
telangiectasias on her nose. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Basal Cell Carcinoma
B. Squamous Cell Carcinoma
C. Malignant Melanoma
D. Actinic Keratosis
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Basal Cell Carcinoma (BCC) typically presents as a pearly, waxy,
or translucent papule with telangiectasias and sometimes a central ‘rodent’ ulcer.
2. Which of the following is the first-line treatment for a patient diagnosed with mild to
moderate Scabies?
A. Oral Ivermectin
B. Hydrocortisone 1% cream
C. Permethrin 5% cream
,D. Selenium Sulfide lotion
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Permethrin 5% cream applied from neck to toes and washed off
after 8-14 hours is the first-line treatment for scabies.
3. A patient presents with a ‘herald patch’ followed by a Christmas tree distribution of
smaller maculopapular lesions. What is the most appropriate management?
A. Reassurance and observation
B. Oral Acyclovir
C. Topical Ketoconazole
D. Systemic Corticosteroids
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Pityriasis Rosea is self-limiting and usually requires only
reassurance or symptomatic treatment for pruritus.
4. A 30-year-old female presents with erythema, telangiectasias, and papulopustules on her
cheeks and chin. She notes the flushing is worse after drinking wine. What is the diagnosis?
A. Acne Vulgaris
B. Rosacea
C. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
D. Seborrheic Dermatitis
, Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Rosacea is characterized by facial erythema, telangiectasias, and
papulopustules, often triggered by alcohol, spicy foods, or heat.
5. Which pharmacological agent is the first-line treatment for an adult with non-purulent
cellulitis?
A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
B. Doxycycline
C. Cephalexin
D. Vancomycin
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: For non-purulent cellulitis where MRSA is not suspected,
Cephalexin (Keflex) targeting Beta-hemolytic streptococci and MSSA is standard.
6. An elderly patient has several rough, sandpaper-like erythematous papules on his scalp.
What is the risk associated with these lesions if left untreated?
A. Progression to Basal Cell Carcinoma
B. Spontaneous resolution with scarring
C. Development of Psoriasis
D. Progression to Squamous Cell Carcinoma
Answer: D
PRACTITIONERS IN PRIMARY CARE I
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
1. A 45-year-old female presents with a pearly, waxy papule with central ulceration and
telangiectasias on her nose. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Basal Cell Carcinoma
B. Squamous Cell Carcinoma
C. Malignant Melanoma
D. Actinic Keratosis
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Basal Cell Carcinoma (BCC) typically presents as a pearly, waxy,
or translucent papule with telangiectasias and sometimes a central ‘rodent’ ulcer.
2. Which of the following is the first-line treatment for a patient diagnosed with mild to
moderate Scabies?
A. Oral Ivermectin
B. Hydrocortisone 1% cream
C. Permethrin 5% cream
,D. Selenium Sulfide lotion
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Permethrin 5% cream applied from neck to toes and washed off
after 8-14 hours is the first-line treatment for scabies.
3. A patient presents with a ‘herald patch’ followed by a Christmas tree distribution of
smaller maculopapular lesions. What is the most appropriate management?
A. Reassurance and observation
B. Oral Acyclovir
C. Topical Ketoconazole
D. Systemic Corticosteroids
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Pityriasis Rosea is self-limiting and usually requires only
reassurance or symptomatic treatment for pruritus.
4. A 30-year-old female presents with erythema, telangiectasias, and papulopustules on her
cheeks and chin. She notes the flushing is worse after drinking wine. What is the diagnosis?
A. Acne Vulgaris
B. Rosacea
C. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
D. Seborrheic Dermatitis
, Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Rosacea is characterized by facial erythema, telangiectasias, and
papulopustules, often triggered by alcohol, spicy foods, or heat.
5. Which pharmacological agent is the first-line treatment for an adult with non-purulent
cellulitis?
A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
B. Doxycycline
C. Cephalexin
D. Vancomycin
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: For non-purulent cellulitis where MRSA is not suspected,
Cephalexin (Keflex) targeting Beta-hemolytic streptococci and MSSA is standard.
6. An elderly patient has several rough, sandpaper-like erythematous papules on his scalp.
What is the risk associated with these lesions if left untreated?
A. Progression to Basal Cell Carcinoma
B. Spontaneous resolution with scarring
C. Development of Psoriasis
D. Progression to Squamous Cell Carcinoma
Answer: D
