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CEA_EXAM_1100_PRACTICE_QUESTIONS_WITH_DETAILED_EXPLANATIONS_2026

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CEA_EXAM_1100_PRACTICE_QUESTIONS_WITH_DETAILED_EXPLANATIONS_2026

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CEA EXAM 1100 PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH
DETAILED EXPLANATIONS 2026

◉ A 35-year-old woman presents with allergic rhinitis, experiencing
significant nasal congestion, sneezing, and itchy eyes. She has tried
over-the-counter antihistamines with limited relief. What is the
most appropriate next step in management.
Answer: Intranasal corticosteroids


◉ Which of the following best characterizes presbycusis in the older
adult?.
Answer: Bilateral high-frequency sensorineural hearing loss


◉ Your 24-year-old male patient has been admitted post-motor
vehicle collision at a high rate of speed. A CT head is performed
revealing a pyramidal fracture involving the lateral walls of the
maxillary sinuses and inferior orbital rim. Which classification of
fracture is this?.
Answer: Le Fort II
Rationale: Le Fort II fracture lines pass through the posterior
alveolar ridge, lateral walls of maxillary sinuses, inferior orbital rim,
and nasal bones

,Le Fort type I, the plane of injury is horizontal and typically results
in a separation of the teeth from the upper face. The horizontal
fracture line generally passes through the alveolar ridge which is the
bony socket that holds the teeth, the lateral nose, and the inferior
part of the maxillary sinus, one of the four nasal sinuses that resides
near the nose.
Le Fort type II presents with a pyramidal-shaped fracture. The upper
teeth make up the base and the nasofrontal suture— a band of tissue
connecting the frontal bone and the nasal bones—makes up the
point or apex of the pyramidal fracture. The pyramidal plane of
fracture can again occur through the alveolar ridge (an extension of
the upper jaw) and maxillary sinuses, but typically also extends
through the orbital rim (eye socket) and nasal bones.
Le Fort type III, the plane of injury is transverse, or horizontal,
similar to type I; however, in type III, injury typically begins at the
nasofrontal area and extends across the orbital walls, zygomatic
arch (cheek bone), and pterygoid plates. A type III Le Fort fracture is
the most extensive as it can result in a complete dislocation of the
midface from the base of the skull, known as a craniofacial
dislocation.


◉ Which of the following is not a common symptom of Meniere's
disease?.
Answer: Photophobia
Rationale: The classic triad of Meniere's disease is vertigo, tinnitus,
and hearing loss.

,◉ The medical term for nosebleed is which of the following?.
Answer: Epistaxis
Rationale: Epistaxis is the medical term for nosebleed.


◉ A 73 y.o. M presents to the ED with complaints of large output
hematemesis since early this morning. He is a endorses chronic
alcohol use and his PMH is positive for peptic ulcer. Which of the
following symptoms indicate a potentially severe GI bleed and likely
need for immediate PRBC transfusion?.
Answer: Orthostatic dizziness, confusion, angina, severe
palpitations, and cold/clammy extremities
Rationale: Symptoms of severe blood loss include Orthostatic
dizziness, confusion, angina, severe palpitations, and cold/clammy
extremities.


◉ A 35-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of severe
pain in his back, chest, and extremities. He has a history of sickle cell
disease. What is the most appropriate initial management during a
pain crisis?.
Answer: Hospitalization for intravenous fluids and opioids
Rationale: Patients experiencing acute sickle cell crisis should be
transported to the hospital for IV hydration therapy and pain
management.

, ◉ A 14-year-old with sickle cell anemia has recently experienced a
sickle cell crisis and presents for a follow-up examination after a
recent hospitalization. It is most important to continue monitoring
growth, development, and:.
Answer: hemoglobin levels.
Rationale: Chronic monitoring for patients with sickle cell disease
includes monitoring of hemoglobin and hematocrit.


◉ A patient with a known intrinsic factor autoantibody is at risk for
developing which of the following conditions?.
Answer: B12 deficiency and pernicious anemia
Rationale: Causes of B12 deficiency include malabsorption and
intrinsic factor deficiency. Intrinsic factor deficiency is a result of
gastric resection or IF autoantibody.


◉ A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is admitted to the rehab unit
you oversee for management of pain due to pelvic fracture after
motor vehicle collision. Admission labs show ANC of 1.4. The patient
is asymptomatic and denies history of repeated infection. What is
the most appropriate level of intervention for his patient?.
Answer: Observation until patient becomes symptomatic
Rationale: Treatment of neutropenia in asymptomatic patients is
observation.

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