Nursing Fundamentals Study Guide + ATI RN
Comprehensive Predictor 2026 | 200 NGN-Aligned
Practice Questions with Verified Answers &
Detailed Rationales | Complete Review for ATI RN
Fundamentals & Comprehensive Predictor Success
| Graded A+
EXAM OVERVIEW
The ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2026 is a 180-question assessment covering
all core nursing content areas.
This comprehensive test bank provides 200 high-yield questions covering Nursing
Fundamentals and all ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor content areas,
including Next Generation NCLEX (NGN) -style questions.
SECTION 1: MANAGEMENT OF CARE – DELEGATION, PRIORITIZATION, AND
LEGAL/ETHICAL ISSUES (Questions 1–35)
1. A charge nurse is making assignments on a medical-surgical unit. Which client
should the charge nurse assign to the LPN?
A. A client with a new tracheostomy requiring frequent suctioning
B. A client who is 1 hour post-hip replacement with a blood pressure of 88/52
mmHg
C. A client with diabetes who requires a sterile wound dressing change
D. A client with hypertension who needs oral medications administered
Valid answer: D
1
,Rationale: LPNs can administer oral medications to stable clients. Clients with new
tracheostomies (unstable airway), post-surgical hypotension (unstable), and sterile
wound dressing changes (requires RN assessment) should be assigned to RNs.
Task delegation must match scope of practice.
2. A nurse is preparing to delegate tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel
(UAP). Which task is appropriate for the nurse to delegate?
A. Administering a blood transfusion
B. Performing a sterile wound dressing change
C. Assisting a client with ambulation using a gait belt
D. Assessing a client's lung sounds
Valid answer: C
Rationale: UAPs can assist with activities of daily living, including ambulation with
a gait belt. RNs must perform sterile procedures, administer blood products, and
conduct assessments.
3. A nurse receives handoff report on four clients. Which client should the nurse
see FIRST?
A. A client with pneumonia with an oxygen saturation of 91% on 3L nasal cannula
B. A client with diabetes with a blood glucose of 180 mg/dL
C. A client with a fractured femur reporting pain of 6 on a 0–10 scale
D. A client with a urinary tract infection with a temperature of 100.4°F (38°C)
Valid answer: A
Rationale: The client with an oxygen saturation of 91% is experiencing hypoxia
and requires immediate assessment and intervention (ABCs—Airway, Breathing,
Circulation). The other clients are stable and can be seen after addressing the
hypoxic client.
2
,4. A client with a valid Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) order becomes pulseless and
apneic. The client's family member demands that the nurse "do everything."
What should the nurse do FIRST?
A. Initiate CPR immediately per the family's request
B. Respect the DNR order and provide comfort measures while supporting the
family
C. Page the provider for clarification of the DNR order
D. Call the hospital ethics committee for consultation
Valid answer: B
Rationale: A valid DNR order must be respected. The nurse should provide
comfort measures and support the family, explaining the DNR order
compassionately. CPR should not be initiated against a valid DNR.
5. A nurse suspects a colleague is impaired due to the smell of alcohol on their
breath. What is the priority action?
A. Confront the colleague privately
B. Notify the nursing supervisor immediately
C. Ignore the situation to avoid conflict
D. Ask the colleague to go home for the day
Valid answer: B
Rationale: Patient safety is paramount. The nurse must report suspected
impairment to the nursing supervisor immediately to ensure patient safety and
follow legal and ethical obligations.
6. A client refuses a blood transfusion due to religious beliefs. What is the
nurse's BEST response?
A. Document the refusal and notify the provider
B. Explain the consequences of refusing the transfusion
3
, C. Ask the family to convince the client to accept the transfusion
D. Administer the transfusion and document the client's objection
Valid answer: A
Rationale: The nurse must respect client autonomy. The provider should be
notified so alternatives can be discussed. The refusal should be documented, and
care should continue within the client's wishes.
7. A nurse manager is discussing "just culture" with staff. Which statement
reflects this concept?
A. "We analyze system failures, not just individual mistakes"
B. "All errors should result in disciplinary action"
C. "Staff should be blamed for all adverse events"
D. "Just culture means no one is ever held accountable"
Valid answer: A
Rationale: Just culture balances accountability with learning from errors without
punitive blame for honest mistakes. The focus is on system improvements to
prevent future errors.
8. A nurse is triaging after a mass casualty event. Which client should be seen
FIRST?
A. A client with a sucking chest wound and stridor
B. A client with a minor laceration on the arm
C. A client with a fractured ankle who is ambulatory
D. A client with anxiety and hyperventilation
Valid answer: A
4
Comprehensive Predictor 2026 | 200 NGN-Aligned
Practice Questions with Verified Answers &
Detailed Rationales | Complete Review for ATI RN
Fundamentals & Comprehensive Predictor Success
| Graded A+
EXAM OVERVIEW
The ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2026 is a 180-question assessment covering
all core nursing content areas.
This comprehensive test bank provides 200 high-yield questions covering Nursing
Fundamentals and all ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor content areas,
including Next Generation NCLEX (NGN) -style questions.
SECTION 1: MANAGEMENT OF CARE – DELEGATION, PRIORITIZATION, AND
LEGAL/ETHICAL ISSUES (Questions 1–35)
1. A charge nurse is making assignments on a medical-surgical unit. Which client
should the charge nurse assign to the LPN?
A. A client with a new tracheostomy requiring frequent suctioning
B. A client who is 1 hour post-hip replacement with a blood pressure of 88/52
mmHg
C. A client with diabetes who requires a sterile wound dressing change
D. A client with hypertension who needs oral medications administered
Valid answer: D
1
,Rationale: LPNs can administer oral medications to stable clients. Clients with new
tracheostomies (unstable airway), post-surgical hypotension (unstable), and sterile
wound dressing changes (requires RN assessment) should be assigned to RNs.
Task delegation must match scope of practice.
2. A nurse is preparing to delegate tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel
(UAP). Which task is appropriate for the nurse to delegate?
A. Administering a blood transfusion
B. Performing a sterile wound dressing change
C. Assisting a client with ambulation using a gait belt
D. Assessing a client's lung sounds
Valid answer: C
Rationale: UAPs can assist with activities of daily living, including ambulation with
a gait belt. RNs must perform sterile procedures, administer blood products, and
conduct assessments.
3. A nurse receives handoff report on four clients. Which client should the nurse
see FIRST?
A. A client with pneumonia with an oxygen saturation of 91% on 3L nasal cannula
B. A client with diabetes with a blood glucose of 180 mg/dL
C. A client with a fractured femur reporting pain of 6 on a 0–10 scale
D. A client with a urinary tract infection with a temperature of 100.4°F (38°C)
Valid answer: A
Rationale: The client with an oxygen saturation of 91% is experiencing hypoxia
and requires immediate assessment and intervention (ABCs—Airway, Breathing,
Circulation). The other clients are stable and can be seen after addressing the
hypoxic client.
2
,4. A client with a valid Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) order becomes pulseless and
apneic. The client's family member demands that the nurse "do everything."
What should the nurse do FIRST?
A. Initiate CPR immediately per the family's request
B. Respect the DNR order and provide comfort measures while supporting the
family
C. Page the provider for clarification of the DNR order
D. Call the hospital ethics committee for consultation
Valid answer: B
Rationale: A valid DNR order must be respected. The nurse should provide
comfort measures and support the family, explaining the DNR order
compassionately. CPR should not be initiated against a valid DNR.
5. A nurse suspects a colleague is impaired due to the smell of alcohol on their
breath. What is the priority action?
A. Confront the colleague privately
B. Notify the nursing supervisor immediately
C. Ignore the situation to avoid conflict
D. Ask the colleague to go home for the day
Valid answer: B
Rationale: Patient safety is paramount. The nurse must report suspected
impairment to the nursing supervisor immediately to ensure patient safety and
follow legal and ethical obligations.
6. A client refuses a blood transfusion due to religious beliefs. What is the
nurse's BEST response?
A. Document the refusal and notify the provider
B. Explain the consequences of refusing the transfusion
3
, C. Ask the family to convince the client to accept the transfusion
D. Administer the transfusion and document the client's objection
Valid answer: A
Rationale: The nurse must respect client autonomy. The provider should be
notified so alternatives can be discussed. The refusal should be documented, and
care should continue within the client's wishes.
7. A nurse manager is discussing "just culture" with staff. Which statement
reflects this concept?
A. "We analyze system failures, not just individual mistakes"
B. "All errors should result in disciplinary action"
C. "Staff should be blamed for all adverse events"
D. "Just culture means no one is ever held accountable"
Valid answer: A
Rationale: Just culture balances accountability with learning from errors without
punitive blame for honest mistakes. The focus is on system improvements to
prevent future errors.
8. A nurse is triaging after a mass casualty event. Which client should be seen
FIRST?
A. A client with a sucking chest wound and stridor
B. A client with a minor laceration on the arm
C. A client with a fractured ankle who is ambulatory
D. A client with anxiety and hyperventilation
Valid answer: A
4
