EXAM QUESTIONS & DETAILED CORRECT
ANSWERS
ATI MED-SURG RESPIRATORY EXAM 2026 | EXAM QUESTIONS & DETAILED
CORRECT ANSWERS
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DOCUMENT OVERVIEW:
• This comprehensive exam prep contains 200 targeted multiple-choice questions
designed to assess mastery of ATI Med-Surg respiratory nursing content with
detailed rationales for each answer.
• Study this material by reviewing each question carefully, attempting to answer
before checking the rationale, and focusing on questions you find most challenging
to reinforce knowledge gaps.
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QUESTION 1
A nurse is assessing a client with COPD who has been smoking for 30 years.
Which assessment finding is most consistent with emphysema?
A) Wheezing on auscultation
B) Barrel chest appearance
C) Productive cough with green sputum
D) Increased breath sounds
E) Pink frothy sputum
CORRECT ANSWER: B) Barrel chest appearance
RATIONALE: A barrel chest is a hallmark finding in emphysema due to chronic air
trapping and hyperinflation of the lungs. The anteroposterior diameter of the chest
increases, creating a barrel-shaped appearance. This occurs because the
diaphragm flattens from constant hyperinflation. While wheezing may occur, it is
,not specific to emphysema. Productive cough with green sputum indicates
infection. Increased breath sounds would not occur; rather, diminished breath
sounds are expected. Pink frothy sputum is associated with pulmonary edema from
heart failure, not emphysema.
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QUESTION 2
A client with acute asthma exacerbation is admitted to the emergency
department with a peak flow of 40% of predicted. What is the priority nursing
intervention?
A) Administer oxygen to maintain SpO2 greater than 90%
B) Provide emotional support and reassurance
C) Teach the client about asthma triggers
D) Schedule pulmonary function testing
E) Obtain a detailed smoking history
CORRECT ANSWER: A) Administer oxygen to maintain SpO2 greater than 90%
RATIONALE: During an acute asthma exacerbation with a peak flow at 40% of
predicted (indicating severe obstruction), the priority is to restore adequate
oxygenation. Administering oxygen to maintain SpO2 greater than 90% is the
immediate life-sustaining intervention. This ensures adequate tissue perfusion and
prevents hypoxemia-related complications. While emotional support is important, it
is not the priority during an acute crisis. Teaching and obtaining history are
appropriate but secondary to acute stabilization.
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QUESTION 3
A nurse is caring for a client receiving mechanical ventilation. Which finding
indicates that the client is ready for weaning trials?
,A) Respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min
B) PaO2 of 55 mmHg on FiO2 of 0.40
C) Spontaneous awakening and ability to follow commands
D) Presence of copious secretions requiring frequent suctioning
E) Persistent fever of 38.5°C
CORRECT ANSWER: C) Spontaneous awakening and ability to follow
commands
RATIONALE: A client ready for weaning must demonstrate multiple readiness
criteria, including spontaneous awakening and ability to follow commands. This
indicates adequate neurological function and level of consciousness needed to
protect the airway and breathe independently. A respiratory rate of 30 is elevated
and suggests respiratory distress. A PaO2 of 55 mmHg is hypoxemia. Copious
secretions and fever both indicate the client is not stable enough for weaning
attempts.
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QUESTION 4
A client with cystic fibrosis is prescribed pancreatic enzyme supplements. The
nurse should provide which instruction about administration?
A) Take the enzymes on an empty stomach once daily
B) Take the enzymes with meals and snacks containing fats
C) Take the enzymes 2 hours after eating to aid digestion
D) Dissolve the enzymes in hot water before administration
E) Take the enzymes only when experiencing abdominal pain
CORRECT ANSWER: B) Take the enzymes with meals and snacks containing
fats
, RATIONALE: Pancreatic enzyme supplements must be taken with meals and snacks
to facilitate fat digestion and nutrient absorption, which are impaired in cystic
fibrosis due to pancreatic insufficiency. Taking them with meals ensures enzymes
are present when food enters the small intestine. Taking them on an empty
stomach, between meals, in hot water, or only as needed would be ineffective
because the enzymes would not coincide with food ingestion.
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QUESTION 5
A nurse is educating a client with COPD about pursed-lip breathing. Which is
the primary purpose of this technique?
A) To increase oxygen uptake in the alveoli
B) To maintain positive airway pressure and prevent airway collapse
C) To strengthen the respiratory muscles
D) To reduce anxiety and promote relaxation
E) To clear secretions from the airways
CORRECT ANSWER: B) To maintain positive airway pressure and prevent
airway collapse
RATIONALE: Pursed-lip breathing creates positive airway pressure during
exhalation, which prevents airway collapse in clients with COPD who have loss of
elastic recoil in their airways. This technique slows expiration, allowing more
complete emptying of the lungs and reducing air trapping. While relaxation may
occur secondarily, the primary physiological purpose is maintaining airway
pressure. The technique does not increase oxygen uptake or strengthen muscles; it
does not effectively clear secretions.
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QUESTION 6