1
NR 224 FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING] ACTUAL
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2026 Q&A | INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF
*Core Domains:
• Nursing Process and Critical Thinking
• Hygiene, Comfort, and Mobility
• Infection Prevention and Control
• Vital Signs and Physical Assessment
• Medication Administration and Dosage Calculation
• Wound Care and Skin Integrity
• Nutrition and Fluid Balance
• Bowel and Urinary Elimination
• Patient Safety and Fall Prevention
• Documentation, Communication, and Ethical-Legal Principles*
Introduction:
This comprehensive fundamentals examination assesses the foundational
knowledge, clinical reasoning, and safe practice skills essential for entry-level
nursing students. The test evaluates understanding of the nursing process, basic
hygiene, mobility, infection control, medication administration, wound care,
nutrition, elimination, and documentation. Multiple-choice and scenario-based
items reflect real clinical situations, requiring accurate assessment, prioritization,
and patient-centered interventions. Success on this assessment confirms readiness
for clinical practice, including the ability to apply theoretical concepts to direct
patient care, communicate effectively, and uphold ethical and legal standards in
diverse healthcare settings.
pg. 1
,2
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
1. A nurse is preparing to move a client up in bed with the help of another
nurse. Which action is most important to prevent injury?
A. Keep the bed in the highest position
B. Place the client’s arms around both nurses’ necks
C. Use a friction-reducing device and bend at the knees
D. Pull the client using only the upper back muscles
C. Use a friction-reducing device and bend at the knees
RATIONALE: Using assistive devices and proper body mechanics—
bending at the knees, keeping the back straight—reduces strain on the
nurse’s spine and prevents injury. Lifting with the back and pulling from a
high position increase injury risk.
2. A client has a temperature of 39.1°C (102.4°F), heart rate 110 bpm,
respiratory rate 22 breaths/min, and blood pressure 120/78 mm Hg. Which
vital sign most likely reflects the body’s response to fever?
A. Heart rate
B. Temperature
C. Blood pressure
D. Respiratory rate
A. Heart rate
RATIONALE: Fever increases metabolic rate, causing tachycardia as the
body attempts to dissipate heat and meet increased oxygen demands.
Heart rate elevation is a compensatory response; the fever itself is the
cause, not the response.
3. A nurse is auscultating a client’s blood pressure and hears the first
Korotkoff sound at 118 mm Hg and the last at 74 mm Hg. How should the
nurse record this reading?
A. 74/118 mm Hg
B. 118/74 mm Hg
C. 118/74 mm Hg with the cuff deflated slowly
D. 74/118 mm Hg with a note
pg. 2
,3
B. 118/74 mm Hg
RATIONALE: The first sound is the systolic pressure and the
disappearance of sound is the diastolic pressure. The reading is recorded as
systolic over diastolic, 118/74 mm Hg.
4. A client has a pressure injury with full-thickness skin loss involving the
subcutaneous tissue but not exposing muscle or bone. Which stage should
the nurse document?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
C. Stage 3
RATIONALE: Stage 3 pressure injuries involve full-thickness skin loss
with damage to subcutaneous tissue; muscle, tendon, and bone are not
exposed. Stage 4 involves deeper structures.
5. Which action by the nurse is most effective in preventing health care-
associated infections?
A. Wearing gloves at all times
B. Performing hand hygiene before and after client contact
C. Placing all clients on contact precautions
D. Using alcohol-based hand rub only when hands are visibly soiled
B. Performing hand hygiene before and after client contact
RATIONALE: Hand hygiene is the single most effective measure to
prevent infection transmission. Gloves do not replace hand hygiene. When
hands are visibly soiled, soap and water must be used.
6. A client asks the nurse to explain the purpose of a clear liquid diet. Which
response is correct?
A. It provides complete nutrition for long-term use
B. It supplies fluid and simple carbohydrates while resting the bowel
C. It is a high-fiber diet to promote bowel movements
D. It includes milk and cream soups
B. It supplies fluid and simple carbohydrates while resting the bowel
RATIONALE: A clear liquid diet provides fluids and easily absorbed
pg. 3
, 4
carbohydrates while minimizing gastrointestinal stimulation. It is
inadequate for long-term nutrition and excludes milk and high-fiber foods.
7. A client is at risk for aspiration. Which nursing action is most appropriate
during oral feeding?
A. Position the client supine
B. Place food on the unaffected side of the mouth and position upright
C. Encourage the client to speak while chewing
D. Provide thin liquids only
B. Place food on the unaffected side of the mouth and position upright
RATIONALE: Upright positioning and placing food in the stronger side
of the mouth reduce aspiration risk. Thin liquids may be difficult to control;
speech while chewing increases risk.
8. The nurse administers a medication and then realizes the wrong dose was
given. What is the priority action?
A. Document the medication as given
B. Complete an incident report only
C. Assess the client for adverse effects and notify the provider
D. Omit the event from the chart
C. Assess the client for adverse effects and notify the provider
RATIONALE: Client safety is the first priority after a medication error.
The nurse must assess for adverse reactions, notify the provider, and then
document and complete an incident report per policy.
9. A client has a urinary catheter. Which action should the nurse take to
prevent infection?
A. Keep the drainage bag on the bed
B. Open the closed system to obtain a specimen frequently
C. Keep the drainage bag below the level of the bladder and maintain a
closed system
D. Change the catheter daily
C. Keep the drainage bag below the level of the bladder and maintain a
closed system
RATIONALE: Maintaining a closed system and keeping the bag below
pg. 4
NR 224 FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING] ACTUAL
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2026 Q&A | INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF
*Core Domains:
• Nursing Process and Critical Thinking
• Hygiene, Comfort, and Mobility
• Infection Prevention and Control
• Vital Signs and Physical Assessment
• Medication Administration and Dosage Calculation
• Wound Care and Skin Integrity
• Nutrition and Fluid Balance
• Bowel and Urinary Elimination
• Patient Safety and Fall Prevention
• Documentation, Communication, and Ethical-Legal Principles*
Introduction:
This comprehensive fundamentals examination assesses the foundational
knowledge, clinical reasoning, and safe practice skills essential for entry-level
nursing students. The test evaluates understanding of the nursing process, basic
hygiene, mobility, infection control, medication administration, wound care,
nutrition, elimination, and documentation. Multiple-choice and scenario-based
items reflect real clinical situations, requiring accurate assessment, prioritization,
and patient-centered interventions. Success on this assessment confirms readiness
for clinical practice, including the ability to apply theoretical concepts to direct
patient care, communicate effectively, and uphold ethical and legal standards in
diverse healthcare settings.
pg. 1
,2
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
1. A nurse is preparing to move a client up in bed with the help of another
nurse. Which action is most important to prevent injury?
A. Keep the bed in the highest position
B. Place the client’s arms around both nurses’ necks
C. Use a friction-reducing device and bend at the knees
D. Pull the client using only the upper back muscles
C. Use a friction-reducing device and bend at the knees
RATIONALE: Using assistive devices and proper body mechanics—
bending at the knees, keeping the back straight—reduces strain on the
nurse’s spine and prevents injury. Lifting with the back and pulling from a
high position increase injury risk.
2. A client has a temperature of 39.1°C (102.4°F), heart rate 110 bpm,
respiratory rate 22 breaths/min, and blood pressure 120/78 mm Hg. Which
vital sign most likely reflects the body’s response to fever?
A. Heart rate
B. Temperature
C. Blood pressure
D. Respiratory rate
A. Heart rate
RATIONALE: Fever increases metabolic rate, causing tachycardia as the
body attempts to dissipate heat and meet increased oxygen demands.
Heart rate elevation is a compensatory response; the fever itself is the
cause, not the response.
3. A nurse is auscultating a client’s blood pressure and hears the first
Korotkoff sound at 118 mm Hg and the last at 74 mm Hg. How should the
nurse record this reading?
A. 74/118 mm Hg
B. 118/74 mm Hg
C. 118/74 mm Hg with the cuff deflated slowly
D. 74/118 mm Hg with a note
pg. 2
,3
B. 118/74 mm Hg
RATIONALE: The first sound is the systolic pressure and the
disappearance of sound is the diastolic pressure. The reading is recorded as
systolic over diastolic, 118/74 mm Hg.
4. A client has a pressure injury with full-thickness skin loss involving the
subcutaneous tissue but not exposing muscle or bone. Which stage should
the nurse document?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
C. Stage 3
RATIONALE: Stage 3 pressure injuries involve full-thickness skin loss
with damage to subcutaneous tissue; muscle, tendon, and bone are not
exposed. Stage 4 involves deeper structures.
5. Which action by the nurse is most effective in preventing health care-
associated infections?
A. Wearing gloves at all times
B. Performing hand hygiene before and after client contact
C. Placing all clients on contact precautions
D. Using alcohol-based hand rub only when hands are visibly soiled
B. Performing hand hygiene before and after client contact
RATIONALE: Hand hygiene is the single most effective measure to
prevent infection transmission. Gloves do not replace hand hygiene. When
hands are visibly soiled, soap and water must be used.
6. A client asks the nurse to explain the purpose of a clear liquid diet. Which
response is correct?
A. It provides complete nutrition for long-term use
B. It supplies fluid and simple carbohydrates while resting the bowel
C. It is a high-fiber diet to promote bowel movements
D. It includes milk and cream soups
B. It supplies fluid and simple carbohydrates while resting the bowel
RATIONALE: A clear liquid diet provides fluids and easily absorbed
pg. 3
, 4
carbohydrates while minimizing gastrointestinal stimulation. It is
inadequate for long-term nutrition and excludes milk and high-fiber foods.
7. A client is at risk for aspiration. Which nursing action is most appropriate
during oral feeding?
A. Position the client supine
B. Place food on the unaffected side of the mouth and position upright
C. Encourage the client to speak while chewing
D. Provide thin liquids only
B. Place food on the unaffected side of the mouth and position upright
RATIONALE: Upright positioning and placing food in the stronger side
of the mouth reduce aspiration risk. Thin liquids may be difficult to control;
speech while chewing increases risk.
8. The nurse administers a medication and then realizes the wrong dose was
given. What is the priority action?
A. Document the medication as given
B. Complete an incident report only
C. Assess the client for adverse effects and notify the provider
D. Omit the event from the chart
C. Assess the client for adverse effects and notify the provider
RATIONALE: Client safety is the first priority after a medication error.
The nurse must assess for adverse reactions, notify the provider, and then
document and complete an incident report per policy.
9. A client has a urinary catheter. Which action should the nurse take to
prevent infection?
A. Keep the drainage bag on the bed
B. Open the closed system to obtain a specimen frequently
C. Keep the drainage bag below the level of the bladder and maintain a
closed system
D. Change the catheter daily
C. Keep the drainage bag below the level of the bladder and maintain a
closed system
RATIONALE: Maintaining a closed system and keeping the bag below
pg. 4
