NSG552 EXAM 2 PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGY
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
NSG552 / NSG 552 Exam 2 (Latest 2026/2027): Psychopharmacology |
Grade A Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct - Wilkes
2026/2027
A+ Verified Edition 2026/2027 Passing Score: 80%
Graduate Psychopharmacology | Rationales Included
Wilkes University · NSG 552 COVER PAGE - 1
, SECTIONS COVERED
1. Antidepressants: SSRIs, SNRIs, TCAs, and Atypicals
2. Anxiolytics, Benzodiazepines, and Anxiety Management
3. Antipsychotics and Mood Stabilizers
4. Trauma-Related Disorders and PTSD Pharmacotherapy
5. Adverse Effects, Safety, and Clinical Decision-Making
SECTION 1: ANTIDEPRESSANTS: SSRIS, SNRIS, TCAS, AND ATYPICALS
Q1
A 34-year-old patient with major depressive disorder is started on sertraline 50 mg daily. After four weeks the patient reports only
partial improvement and tolerates the medication well. The PMHNP decides to optimize therapy. Which next step is most consistent
with evidence-based titration for sertraline?
A. Increase the dose gradually toward the usual therapeutic range of 100–200 mg daily while monitoring response and side effects
B. Immediately switch to a TCA because SSRIs are ineffective after four weeks
C. Add a benzodiazepine as mandatory augmentation for all partial responders
D. Discontinue sertraline and observe without medication for two weeks
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Sertraline is typically titrated within 50–200 mg daily. Four weeks is an appropriate time to assess partial response and increase the dose if tolerated.
Immediate class switching or automatic benzodiazepine augmentation is not first-line.
Q2
A patient taking fluoxetine for depression develops sexual dysfunction that is distressing. The PMHNP considers a pharmacologic
strategy to mitigate this side effect while continuing antidepressant therapy. Which agent is most commonly used for this purpose?
A. Bupropion added or substituted to reduce sexual side effects
B. Increasing the fluoxetine dose further
C. Adding a high-potency first-generation antipsychotic
D. Switching exclusively to a long-acting benzodiazepine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Bupropion has a lower incidence of sexual side effects and is frequently used as an adjunct or alternative when SSRI-induced sexual dysfunction
occurs. Increasing the SSRI dose usually worsens the problem.
Q3
A 58-year-old patient with depression and chronic neuropathic pain is being considered for an antidepressant that may also benefit
pain. Which class is most likely to provide dual benefit for mood and pain?
A. SNRIs such as duloxetine or venlafaxine
B. SSRIs exclusively
C. Benzodiazepines
D. Stimulant medications
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
SNRIs have established efficacy for both major depression and certain chronic pain conditions. Pure SSRIs are less consistently helpful for
neuropathic pain.
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
NSG552 / NSG 552 Exam 2 (Latest 2026/2027): Psychopharmacology |
Grade A Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Correct - Wilkes
2026/2027
A+ Verified Edition 2026/2027 Passing Score: 80%
Graduate Psychopharmacology | Rationales Included
Wilkes University · NSG 552 COVER PAGE - 1
, SECTIONS COVERED
1. Antidepressants: SSRIs, SNRIs, TCAs, and Atypicals
2. Anxiolytics, Benzodiazepines, and Anxiety Management
3. Antipsychotics and Mood Stabilizers
4. Trauma-Related Disorders and PTSD Pharmacotherapy
5. Adverse Effects, Safety, and Clinical Decision-Making
SECTION 1: ANTIDEPRESSANTS: SSRIS, SNRIS, TCAS, AND ATYPICALS
Q1
A 34-year-old patient with major depressive disorder is started on sertraline 50 mg daily. After four weeks the patient reports only
partial improvement and tolerates the medication well. The PMHNP decides to optimize therapy. Which next step is most consistent
with evidence-based titration for sertraline?
A. Increase the dose gradually toward the usual therapeutic range of 100–200 mg daily while monitoring response and side effects
B. Immediately switch to a TCA because SSRIs are ineffective after four weeks
C. Add a benzodiazepine as mandatory augmentation for all partial responders
D. Discontinue sertraline and observe without medication for two weeks
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Sertraline is typically titrated within 50–200 mg daily. Four weeks is an appropriate time to assess partial response and increase the dose if tolerated.
Immediate class switching or automatic benzodiazepine augmentation is not first-line.
Q2
A patient taking fluoxetine for depression develops sexual dysfunction that is distressing. The PMHNP considers a pharmacologic
strategy to mitigate this side effect while continuing antidepressant therapy. Which agent is most commonly used for this purpose?
A. Bupropion added or substituted to reduce sexual side effects
B. Increasing the fluoxetine dose further
C. Adding a high-potency first-generation antipsychotic
D. Switching exclusively to a long-acting benzodiazepine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Bupropion has a lower incidence of sexual side effects and is frequently used as an adjunct or alternative when SSRI-induced sexual dysfunction
occurs. Increasing the SSRI dose usually worsens the problem.
Q3
A 58-year-old patient with depression and chronic neuropathic pain is being considered for an antidepressant that may also benefit
pain. Which class is most likely to provide dual benefit for mood and pain?
A. SNRIs such as duloxetine or venlafaxine
B. SSRIs exclusively
C. Benzodiazepines
D. Stimulant medications
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
SNRIs have established efficacy for both major depression and certain chronic pain conditions. Pure SSRIs are less consistently helpful for
neuropathic pain.
