NSG 533 Exam 3 – Wilkes Advanced Pharmacology (2026) UPDATE
1. A patient taking Lisinopril for hypertension develops a persistent, dry cough. Which
mechanism is responsible for this side effect?
A. Inhibition of renin release
B. Blockade of angiotensin II receptors
C. Direct irritation of bronchial mucosa
D. Accumulation of bradykinin
Answer: D
Rationale: ACE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of bradykinin, leading to its
accumulation in the lungs, which can trigger a dry cough.
2. When monitoring a patient on Warfarin therapy, which laboratory value is the primary
indicator for dosage adjustment?
A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C. Platelet count
D. Bleeding time
Answer: B
,Rationale: INR is the standard laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness and safety
of Warfarin therapy.
3. A patient with Type 2 Diabetes is scheduled for an imaging study with IV contrast. Which
medication should be withheld for 48 hours after the procedure?
A. Glipizide
B. Pioglitazone
C. Metformin
D. Sitagliptin
Answer: C
Rationale: Metformin must be held to prevent the risk of lactic acidosis if contrast-induced
renal failure occurs.
4. Which of the following is a significant side effect associated with the use of
Spironolactone?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypocalcemia
Answer: C
, Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to elevated serum
potassium levels.
5. A patient is prescribed Atorvastatin. What is the most important laboratory test to monitor
periodically?
A. Serum creatinine
B. Prothrombin time (PT)
C. Complete blood count (CBC)
D. Liver function tests (LFTs)
Answer: D
Rationale: Statins can cause hepatotoxicity, making periodic monitoring of liver enzymes
essential.
6. A patient with heart failure is prescribed Digoxin. Which electrolyte imbalance increases
the risk of Digoxin toxicity?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypomagnesemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypercalcemia
Answer: A
1. A patient taking Lisinopril for hypertension develops a persistent, dry cough. Which
mechanism is responsible for this side effect?
A. Inhibition of renin release
B. Blockade of angiotensin II receptors
C. Direct irritation of bronchial mucosa
D. Accumulation of bradykinin
Answer: D
Rationale: ACE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of bradykinin, leading to its
accumulation in the lungs, which can trigger a dry cough.
2. When monitoring a patient on Warfarin therapy, which laboratory value is the primary
indicator for dosage adjustment?
A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C. Platelet count
D. Bleeding time
Answer: B
,Rationale: INR is the standard laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness and safety
of Warfarin therapy.
3. A patient with Type 2 Diabetes is scheduled for an imaging study with IV contrast. Which
medication should be withheld for 48 hours after the procedure?
A. Glipizide
B. Pioglitazone
C. Metformin
D. Sitagliptin
Answer: C
Rationale: Metformin must be held to prevent the risk of lactic acidosis if contrast-induced
renal failure occurs.
4. Which of the following is a significant side effect associated with the use of
Spironolactone?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypocalcemia
Answer: C
, Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to elevated serum
potassium levels.
5. A patient is prescribed Atorvastatin. What is the most important laboratory test to monitor
periodically?
A. Serum creatinine
B. Prothrombin time (PT)
C. Complete blood count (CBC)
D. Liver function tests (LFTs)
Answer: D
Rationale: Statins can cause hepatotoxicity, making periodic monitoring of liver enzymes
essential.
6. A patient with heart failure is prescribed Digoxin. Which electrolyte imbalance increases
the risk of Digoxin toxicity?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypomagnesemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypercalcemia
Answer: A
