N212 EXAM 2 REVIEW
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS |
2026 UPDATED | 100% CORRECT -
PRENIUM EXAM
140 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
N212 EXAM 2 REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | 2026 UPDATED | 100% CORRECT - EASTWICK
COLLEGE.. It contains 140 carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing
strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the
underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 140 Questions
Foundations - Application - N212 2 Review AND 2026 Updated 100 Correct - Eastwick College
Medical-surgical Nursing II Undergraduate YEAR 3 Baccalaureate Nursing
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Management OF CARE 1-24 Appropriate, Finding, Laboratory, Acute, Failure
Safety AND Infection Control 25-48 Develops, Appropriate, Acute, Serum, Prescribed
Health Promotion AND 49-72 Appropriate, Guidelines, Acute, Prescribed, Therapy
Maintenance
Psychosocial Integrity 73-96 Finding, Acute, Appropriate, Intervention, Prescribed
Basic CARE AND Comfort 97-120 Acute, Value, Finding, Develops, Intervention
Pharmacological Therapies 121-140 Medication, Prescribed, Therapeutic, Appropriate, Chronic Kidney
Disease
TOTAL 140 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Management OF CARE
Q1.
A patient with septic shock has a pulmonary artery catheter in place. The cardiac index is
2.1 L/min/m², systemic vascular resistance is 680 dynes-sec-cm, and pulmonary artery
wedge pressure is 6 mm Hg. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A. Administer a vasopressor to increase B. Administer a fluid bolus and reassess
systemic vascular resistance hemodynamics
C. Initiate an inotrope to enhance cardiac D. Apply continuous renal replacement
contractility therapy
Correct: B - Administer a fluid bolus and reassess hemodynamics
Rationale:The low wedge pressure and low cardiac index indicate preload deficiency, so fluid
resuscitation is the first-line intervention. Vasopressors are not indicated without adequate
preload. Inotropes are considered after optimizing preload. CRRT is not indicated for
hemodynamic optimization.
Q2.
Which of the following findings in a patient with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic
hormone (SIADH) would warrant immediate intervention?
A. Serum sodium 128 mEq/L with urine B. Serum sodium 120 mEq/L with altered
osmolality 600 mOsm/kg mental status
C. Serum sodium 132 mEq/L with peripheral D. Serum sodium 135 mEq/L with urine
edema sodium 40 mEq/L
Correct: B - Serum sodium 120 mEq/L with altered mental status
Rationale:Severe hyponatremia with neurological symptoms indicates impending cerebral
edema and requires emergent hypertonic saline. A sodium of 128 is concerning but stable.
Peripheral edema is not typical of SIADH. A sodium of 135 is near normal.
Q3.
A patient with type 2 diabetes is started on an SGLT2 inhibitor. Which laboratory value
requires the most immediate follow-up?
A. Hemoglobin A1c 7.2% B. Serum creatinine 1.8 mg/dL
C. Blood glucose 140 mg/dL D. Potassium 4.5 mEq/L
Correct: B - Serum creatinine 1.8 mg/dL
Page 3
, Section A - Management OF CARE
Rationale: SGLT2 inhibitors can cause acute kidney injury and are contraindicated with eGFR
<30 mL/min/1.73m². A creatinine of 1.8 mg/dL requires evaluation of renal function. A1c and
glucose are expected to be elevated; potassium is normal.
Q4.
A patient with acute pancreatitis develops sudden respiratory distress. Arterial blood gas
shows pH 7.48, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, PaO2 55 mm Hg on 50% FiO2. Which diagnosis is most
likely?
A. Pulmonary embolism B. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
(ARDS)
C. Pneumothorax D. Pneumonia
Correct: B - Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
Rationale:ARDS is a common complication of acute pancreatitis, presenting with refractory
hypoxemia and respiratory alkalosis. The PaO2/FiO2 ratio is <200, consistent with
moderate-to-severe ARDS. Pulmonary embolism and pneumothorax are less likely without
other findings. Pneumonia may coexist but does not explain the rapid onset.
Q5.
Which of the following assessment findings is most indicative of impending brain
herniation in a patient with traumatic brain injury?
A. Decorticate posturing B. Unilateral fixed and dilated pupil
C. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 10 D. Bilateral papilledema
Correct: B - Unilateral fixed and dilated pupil
Rationale:A unilateral fixed and dilated pupil is a classic sign of third cranial nerve
compression, indicating uncal herniation. Decorticate posturing and GCS 10 are concerning
but not as imminent. Bilateral papilledema indicates chronic increased ICP.
Q6.
A patient with acute liver failure is being considered for liver transplantation. Which factor
is an absolute contraindication?
A. Severe coagulopathy B. Uncontrolled sepsis
C. Hepatic encephalopathy grade II D. Age 65 years
Correct: B - Uncontrolled sepsis
Page 4
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS |
2026 UPDATED | 100% CORRECT -
PRENIUM EXAM
140 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
N212 EXAM 2 REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | 2026 UPDATED | 100% CORRECT - EASTWICK
COLLEGE.. It contains 140 carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing
strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the
underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 140 Questions
Foundations - Application - N212 2 Review AND 2026 Updated 100 Correct - Eastwick College
Medical-surgical Nursing II Undergraduate YEAR 3 Baccalaureate Nursing
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Management OF CARE 1-24 Appropriate, Finding, Laboratory, Acute, Failure
Safety AND Infection Control 25-48 Develops, Appropriate, Acute, Serum, Prescribed
Health Promotion AND 49-72 Appropriate, Guidelines, Acute, Prescribed, Therapy
Maintenance
Psychosocial Integrity 73-96 Finding, Acute, Appropriate, Intervention, Prescribed
Basic CARE AND Comfort 97-120 Acute, Value, Finding, Develops, Intervention
Pharmacological Therapies 121-140 Medication, Prescribed, Therapeutic, Appropriate, Chronic Kidney
Disease
TOTAL 140 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Management OF CARE
Q1.
A patient with septic shock has a pulmonary artery catheter in place. The cardiac index is
2.1 L/min/m², systemic vascular resistance is 680 dynes-sec-cm, and pulmonary artery
wedge pressure is 6 mm Hg. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A. Administer a vasopressor to increase B. Administer a fluid bolus and reassess
systemic vascular resistance hemodynamics
C. Initiate an inotrope to enhance cardiac D. Apply continuous renal replacement
contractility therapy
Correct: B - Administer a fluid bolus and reassess hemodynamics
Rationale:The low wedge pressure and low cardiac index indicate preload deficiency, so fluid
resuscitation is the first-line intervention. Vasopressors are not indicated without adequate
preload. Inotropes are considered after optimizing preload. CRRT is not indicated for
hemodynamic optimization.
Q2.
Which of the following findings in a patient with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic
hormone (SIADH) would warrant immediate intervention?
A. Serum sodium 128 mEq/L with urine B. Serum sodium 120 mEq/L with altered
osmolality 600 mOsm/kg mental status
C. Serum sodium 132 mEq/L with peripheral D. Serum sodium 135 mEq/L with urine
edema sodium 40 mEq/L
Correct: B - Serum sodium 120 mEq/L with altered mental status
Rationale:Severe hyponatremia with neurological symptoms indicates impending cerebral
edema and requires emergent hypertonic saline. A sodium of 128 is concerning but stable.
Peripheral edema is not typical of SIADH. A sodium of 135 is near normal.
Q3.
A patient with type 2 diabetes is started on an SGLT2 inhibitor. Which laboratory value
requires the most immediate follow-up?
A. Hemoglobin A1c 7.2% B. Serum creatinine 1.8 mg/dL
C. Blood glucose 140 mg/dL D. Potassium 4.5 mEq/L
Correct: B - Serum creatinine 1.8 mg/dL
Page 3
, Section A - Management OF CARE
Rationale: SGLT2 inhibitors can cause acute kidney injury and are contraindicated with eGFR
<30 mL/min/1.73m². A creatinine of 1.8 mg/dL requires evaluation of renal function. A1c and
glucose are expected to be elevated; potassium is normal.
Q4.
A patient with acute pancreatitis develops sudden respiratory distress. Arterial blood gas
shows pH 7.48, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, PaO2 55 mm Hg on 50% FiO2. Which diagnosis is most
likely?
A. Pulmonary embolism B. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
(ARDS)
C. Pneumothorax D. Pneumonia
Correct: B - Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
Rationale:ARDS is a common complication of acute pancreatitis, presenting with refractory
hypoxemia and respiratory alkalosis. The PaO2/FiO2 ratio is <200, consistent with
moderate-to-severe ARDS. Pulmonary embolism and pneumothorax are less likely without
other findings. Pneumonia may coexist but does not explain the rapid onset.
Q5.
Which of the following assessment findings is most indicative of impending brain
herniation in a patient with traumatic brain injury?
A. Decorticate posturing B. Unilateral fixed and dilated pupil
C. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 10 D. Bilateral papilledema
Correct: B - Unilateral fixed and dilated pupil
Rationale:A unilateral fixed and dilated pupil is a classic sign of third cranial nerve
compression, indicating uncal herniation. Decorticate posturing and GCS 10 are concerning
but not as imminent. Bilateral papilledema indicates chronic increased ICP.
Q6.
A patient with acute liver failure is being considered for liver transplantation. Which factor
is an absolute contraindication?
A. Severe coagulopathy B. Uncontrolled sepsis
C. Hepatic encephalopathy grade II D. Age 65 years
Correct: B - Uncontrolled sepsis
Page 4
